Fundamental group of complement of $n$ lines through the origin in $mathbb{R}^3$











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Just a quick question to verify whether I'm right.



Claim: The fundamental group of the complement of $n$ lines through the origin in $mathbb{R}^3$ is $F_n$, the free group on $n$ generators.



Proof: remove a line from $mathbb{R}^3$. We may deformation retract the remaining space onto a cylinder radius $epsilon$ about the line, and thence to a circle $S^1$. There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line, except that then we will be a wedge union $S^1 vee S^1$. Continue inductively, and recall that the wedge union of $n$ circles has the stated fundamental group.



I'm only just starting to really get my head around this stuff, so any feedback would be really useful!



Thanks!










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  • 1




    Sounds right : )
    – Rudy the Reindeer
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:33






  • 1




    This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:39










  • Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:41






  • 1




    Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
    – you
    Apr 8 '12 at 22:48








  • 3




    You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    Apr 8 '12 at 23:19















up vote
9
down vote

favorite
8












Just a quick question to verify whether I'm right.



Claim: The fundamental group of the complement of $n$ lines through the origin in $mathbb{R}^3$ is $F_n$, the free group on $n$ generators.



Proof: remove a line from $mathbb{R}^3$. We may deformation retract the remaining space onto a cylinder radius $epsilon$ about the line, and thence to a circle $S^1$. There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line, except that then we will be a wedge union $S^1 vee S^1$. Continue inductively, and recall that the wedge union of $n$ circles has the stated fundamental group.



I'm only just starting to really get my head around this stuff, so any feedback would be really useful!



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Sounds right : )
    – Rudy the Reindeer
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:33






  • 1




    This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:39










  • Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:41






  • 1




    Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
    – you
    Apr 8 '12 at 22:48








  • 3




    You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    Apr 8 '12 at 23:19













up vote
9
down vote

favorite
8









up vote
9
down vote

favorite
8






8





Just a quick question to verify whether I'm right.



Claim: The fundamental group of the complement of $n$ lines through the origin in $mathbb{R}^3$ is $F_n$, the free group on $n$ generators.



Proof: remove a line from $mathbb{R}^3$. We may deformation retract the remaining space onto a cylinder radius $epsilon$ about the line, and thence to a circle $S^1$. There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line, except that then we will be a wedge union $S^1 vee S^1$. Continue inductively, and recall that the wedge union of $n$ circles has the stated fundamental group.



I'm only just starting to really get my head around this stuff, so any feedback would be really useful!



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question















Just a quick question to verify whether I'm right.



Claim: The fundamental group of the complement of $n$ lines through the origin in $mathbb{R}^3$ is $F_n$, the free group on $n$ generators.



Proof: remove a line from $mathbb{R}^3$. We may deformation retract the remaining space onto a cylinder radius $epsilon$ about the line, and thence to a circle $S^1$. There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line, except that then we will be a wedge union $S^1 vee S^1$. Continue inductively, and recall that the wedge union of $n$ circles has the stated fundamental group.



I'm only just starting to really get my head around this stuff, so any feedback would be really useful!



Thanks!







algebraic-topology homotopy-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jun 2 '12 at 16:03

























asked Apr 8 '12 at 19:30









Edward Hughes

1,9701550




1,9701550








  • 1




    Sounds right : )
    – Rudy the Reindeer
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:33






  • 1




    This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:39










  • Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:41






  • 1




    Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
    – you
    Apr 8 '12 at 22:48








  • 3




    You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    Apr 8 '12 at 23:19














  • 1




    Sounds right : )
    – Rudy the Reindeer
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:33






  • 1




    This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
    – Cheerful Parsnip
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:39










  • Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 8 '12 at 19:41






  • 1




    Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
    – you
    Apr 8 '12 at 22:48








  • 3




    You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
    – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
    Apr 8 '12 at 23:19








1




1




Sounds right : )
– Rudy the Reindeer
Apr 8 '12 at 19:33




Sounds right : )
– Rudy the Reindeer
Apr 8 '12 at 19:33




1




1




This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
– Cheerful Parsnip
Apr 8 '12 at 19:39




This is basically right, though writing down all the details could be messy.
– Cheerful Parsnip
Apr 8 '12 at 19:39












Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
– Edward Hughes
Apr 8 '12 at 19:41




Thanks! I agree the details could be messy, but now at least I know I have the right idea.
– Edward Hughes
Apr 8 '12 at 19:41




1




1




Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
– you
Apr 8 '12 at 22:48






Do you mean "minus $n$ lines" like in the title, or "minus $n$ lines through the origin"? There is a significant difference: if the $n$ lines are disjoint then the fundamental group is $F_{n}$ (seen by deformation retracting onto ($mathbb{R}^2$ minus $n$ points)), but if $ngeq 2$ and they all intersect at the same point then the fundamental group is $F_{2n-1}$ (as shown by user8268)
– you
Apr 8 '12 at 22:48






3




3




You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Apr 8 '12 at 23:19




You say «There is no trouble repeating this process with a second distinct line». What process? WHat you explain in the case of one line cannot be done when there are two of them!
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Apr 8 '12 at 23:19










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
13
down vote



accepted










There is a deformation retraction of ($mathbb{R}^3$ minus $n$ lines through the origin) to (the unit sphere with $2n$ points removed). The $2n$ points are the intersections of the lines with the sphere, the deformation retraction is along the rays from the origin.



As a result, the fundamental group is actually $F_{2n-1}$, not $F_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 10 '12 at 23:45






  • 1




    Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
    – John Stalfos
    Apr 12 '12 at 2:14








  • 4




    I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Sep 1 '13 at 12:11











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
13
down vote



accepted










There is a deformation retraction of ($mathbb{R}^3$ minus $n$ lines through the origin) to (the unit sphere with $2n$ points removed). The $2n$ points are the intersections of the lines with the sphere, the deformation retraction is along the rays from the origin.



As a result, the fundamental group is actually $F_{2n-1}$, not $F_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 10 '12 at 23:45






  • 1




    Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
    – John Stalfos
    Apr 12 '12 at 2:14








  • 4




    I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Sep 1 '13 at 12:11















up vote
13
down vote



accepted










There is a deformation retraction of ($mathbb{R}^3$ minus $n$ lines through the origin) to (the unit sphere with $2n$ points removed). The $2n$ points are the intersections of the lines with the sphere, the deformation retraction is along the rays from the origin.



As a result, the fundamental group is actually $F_{2n-1}$, not $F_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 10 '12 at 23:45






  • 1




    Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
    – John Stalfos
    Apr 12 '12 at 2:14








  • 4




    I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Sep 1 '13 at 12:11













up vote
13
down vote



accepted







up vote
13
down vote



accepted






There is a deformation retraction of ($mathbb{R}^3$ minus $n$ lines through the origin) to (the unit sphere with $2n$ points removed). The $2n$ points are the intersections of the lines with the sphere, the deformation retraction is along the rays from the origin.



As a result, the fundamental group is actually $F_{2n-1}$, not $F_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer












There is a deformation retraction of ($mathbb{R}^3$ minus $n$ lines through the origin) to (the unit sphere with $2n$ points removed). The $2n$ points are the intersections of the lines with the sphere, the deformation retraction is along the rays from the origin.



As a result, the fundamental group is actually $F_{2n-1}$, not $F_n$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Apr 8 '12 at 22:34









user8268

16.7k12746




16.7k12746








  • 1




    How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 10 '12 at 23:45






  • 1




    Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
    – John Stalfos
    Apr 12 '12 at 2:14








  • 4




    I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Sep 1 '13 at 12:11














  • 1




    How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
    – Edward Hughes
    Apr 10 '12 at 23:45






  • 1




    Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
    – John Stalfos
    Apr 12 '12 at 2:14








  • 4




    I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Sep 1 '13 at 12:11








1




1




How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
– Edward Hughes
Apr 10 '12 at 23:45




How do you show that the unit sphere with 2$n$ points removed has fundamental group $F_{2n-1}$? Thanks!
– Edward Hughes
Apr 10 '12 at 23:45




1




1




Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
– John Stalfos
Apr 12 '12 at 2:14






Have you heard of stereographic projection? It is a homeomorphism from the complement of a point on $S^n$ to $mathbb{R}^n$. Relevant link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereographic_projection
– John Stalfos
Apr 12 '12 at 2:14






4




4




I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
– Patrick Da Silva
Sep 1 '13 at 12:11




I was asking this question myself too ; I guess the right way to do it is to use one of the $2n$ points as a "north pole" for the stereographic projection, which leaves us with $mathbb R^2$ with $2n-1$ points removed. Using van Kampen's theorem, we get $F_{2n-1}$. :)
– Patrick Da Silva
Sep 1 '13 at 12:11


















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