How to find bounds of integral of a C.D.F?











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Suppose f(x,y) = {1/2 for 0<=x<=2 and 0<= y <= 1}
and 0 otherwise.



Find Pr(X>=Y). So everything to the right of x = y is where to integrate on
I believe you can find the bounds two ways:
1. Integrate on x first then on y. $$int_{0}^{1} int_{y}^{2}1/2 ,dx,dy$$ and consequently the answer is 3/4.




  1. Integrate on y first then on x. To me the bounds are intuitively supposed to be: $$int_{0}^{2} int_{o}^{x}1/2 ,dy,dx$$


But that is not correct because the answer is 3/4.



Can someone explain how the to derive the bounds for the second method?










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    Suppose f(x,y) = {1/2 for 0<=x<=2 and 0<= y <= 1}
    and 0 otherwise.



    Find Pr(X>=Y). So everything to the right of x = y is where to integrate on
    I believe you can find the bounds two ways:
    1. Integrate on x first then on y. $$int_{0}^{1} int_{y}^{2}1/2 ,dx,dy$$ and consequently the answer is 3/4.




    1. Integrate on y first then on x. To me the bounds are intuitively supposed to be: $$int_{0}^{2} int_{o}^{x}1/2 ,dy,dx$$


    But that is not correct because the answer is 3/4.



    Can someone explain how the to derive the bounds for the second method?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose f(x,y) = {1/2 for 0<=x<=2 and 0<= y <= 1}
      and 0 otherwise.



      Find Pr(X>=Y). So everything to the right of x = y is where to integrate on
      I believe you can find the bounds two ways:
      1. Integrate on x first then on y. $$int_{0}^{1} int_{y}^{2}1/2 ,dx,dy$$ and consequently the answer is 3/4.




      1. Integrate on y first then on x. To me the bounds are intuitively supposed to be: $$int_{0}^{2} int_{o}^{x}1/2 ,dy,dx$$


      But that is not correct because the answer is 3/4.



      Can someone explain how the to derive the bounds for the second method?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose f(x,y) = {1/2 for 0<=x<=2 and 0<= y <= 1}
      and 0 otherwise.



      Find Pr(X>=Y). So everything to the right of x = y is where to integrate on
      I believe you can find the bounds two ways:
      1. Integrate on x first then on y. $$int_{0}^{1} int_{y}^{2}1/2 ,dx,dy$$ and consequently the answer is 3/4.




      1. Integrate on y first then on x. To me the bounds are intuitively supposed to be: $$int_{0}^{2} int_{o}^{x}1/2 ,dy,dx$$


      But that is not correct because the answer is 3/4.



      Can someone explain how the to derive the bounds for the second method?







      probability-distributions bounds-of-integration






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      edited Nov 17 at 0:23

























      asked Nov 16 at 23:45









      Sir lethian

      163




      163






















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          You have to split the integral, since from $0 le x le 1$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $x$, but for $1 le x le 2$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $1$.



          So the correct integral should be
          $$int_0^1{int_0^x{1/2 dy dx}} + int_1^2{int_0^1{1/2 dy dx}}$$
          $$= 1/4+1/2 = 3/4$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
            – helper
            Nov 17 at 0:56













          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You have to split the integral, since from $0 le x le 1$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $x$, but for $1 le x le 2$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $1$.



          So the correct integral should be
          $$int_0^1{int_0^x{1/2 dy dx}} + int_1^2{int_0^1{1/2 dy dx}}$$
          $$= 1/4+1/2 = 3/4$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
            – helper
            Nov 17 at 0:56

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You have to split the integral, since from $0 le x le 1$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $x$, but for $1 le x le 2$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $1$.



          So the correct integral should be
          $$int_0^1{int_0^x{1/2 dy dx}} + int_1^2{int_0^1{1/2 dy dx}}$$
          $$= 1/4+1/2 = 3/4$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
            – helper
            Nov 17 at 0:56















          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          You have to split the integral, since from $0 le x le 1$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $x$, but for $1 le x le 2$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $1$.



          So the correct integral should be
          $$int_0^1{int_0^x{1/2 dy dx}} + int_1^2{int_0^1{1/2 dy dx}}$$
          $$= 1/4+1/2 = 3/4$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You have to split the integral, since from $0 le x le 1$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $x$, but for $1 le x le 2$, $y$ goes between $0$ and $1$.



          So the correct integral should be
          $$int_0^1{int_0^x{1/2 dy dx}} + int_1^2{int_0^1{1/2 dy dx}}$$
          $$= 1/4+1/2 = 3/4$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 17 at 0:54









          helper

          524212




          524212












          • A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
            – helper
            Nov 17 at 0:56




















          • A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
            – helper
            Nov 17 at 0:56


















          A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
          – helper
          Nov 17 at 0:56






          A much simpler way of integrating is to use the fact that $f(x,y)$ is constant, and just calculate the area where $X ge Y$ and multiply by the value of $f$ (i.e., $1/2$)
          – helper
          Nov 17 at 0:56




















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