Is Banach fixed point theorem a necessary and sufficient condition for the existence of a fixed point











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Banach fixed point theorem requires a contraction mapping from a metric space into itself, but when I was learning some machine learning algorithms, some questions rise above:
k-means is an algorithm for clustering, it can be proved that this method will converge, but the proof of convergence of the algorithm doesn't involve fixed point theorem. I feel the iteration of the centering point for each cluster in this method is very similar the iteration of the fixed point iteration steps so I tried to prove this convergence using Banach fixed point theorem. However I couldn't construct a contraction mapping in this problem. So I guess if the iteration steps in k-means is not a contraction at all. In order to test this assumption, I generate some random number on my computer and use the k-means steps to cluster and calculate the norm distance between each iteration point.To my surprise, it is NOT a contraction!but it does converge in finite steps. I think the convergence shows the existence of the fixed point under this iteration. So with these facts, can I say the Bananch Fixed point theorem gives a sufficient condition on the existence of a fixed point, but it might not be necessary?










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  • If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
    – OnceUponACrinoid
    Nov 17 at 7:24










  • $mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 17 at 12:09















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1
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Banach fixed point theorem requires a contraction mapping from a metric space into itself, but when I was learning some machine learning algorithms, some questions rise above:
k-means is an algorithm for clustering, it can be proved that this method will converge, but the proof of convergence of the algorithm doesn't involve fixed point theorem. I feel the iteration of the centering point for each cluster in this method is very similar the iteration of the fixed point iteration steps so I tried to prove this convergence using Banach fixed point theorem. However I couldn't construct a contraction mapping in this problem. So I guess if the iteration steps in k-means is not a contraction at all. In order to test this assumption, I generate some random number on my computer and use the k-means steps to cluster and calculate the norm distance between each iteration point.To my surprise, it is NOT a contraction!but it does converge in finite steps. I think the convergence shows the existence of the fixed point under this iteration. So with these facts, can I say the Bananch Fixed point theorem gives a sufficient condition on the existence of a fixed point, but it might not be necessary?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
    – OnceUponACrinoid
    Nov 17 at 7:24










  • $mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 17 at 12:09













up vote
1
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up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Banach fixed point theorem requires a contraction mapping from a metric space into itself, but when I was learning some machine learning algorithms, some questions rise above:
k-means is an algorithm for clustering, it can be proved that this method will converge, but the proof of convergence of the algorithm doesn't involve fixed point theorem. I feel the iteration of the centering point for each cluster in this method is very similar the iteration of the fixed point iteration steps so I tried to prove this convergence using Banach fixed point theorem. However I couldn't construct a contraction mapping in this problem. So I guess if the iteration steps in k-means is not a contraction at all. In order to test this assumption, I generate some random number on my computer and use the k-means steps to cluster and calculate the norm distance between each iteration point.To my surprise, it is NOT a contraction!but it does converge in finite steps. I think the convergence shows the existence of the fixed point under this iteration. So with these facts, can I say the Bananch Fixed point theorem gives a sufficient condition on the existence of a fixed point, but it might not be necessary?










share|cite|improve this question













Banach fixed point theorem requires a contraction mapping from a metric space into itself, but when I was learning some machine learning algorithms, some questions rise above:
k-means is an algorithm for clustering, it can be proved that this method will converge, but the proof of convergence of the algorithm doesn't involve fixed point theorem. I feel the iteration of the centering point for each cluster in this method is very similar the iteration of the fixed point iteration steps so I tried to prove this convergence using Banach fixed point theorem. However I couldn't construct a contraction mapping in this problem. So I guess if the iteration steps in k-means is not a contraction at all. In order to test this assumption, I generate some random number on my computer and use the k-means steps to cluster and calculate the norm distance between each iteration point.To my surprise, it is NOT a contraction!but it does converge in finite steps. I think the convergence shows the existence of the fixed point under this iteration. So with these facts, can I say the Bananch Fixed point theorem gives a sufficient condition on the existence of a fixed point, but it might not be necessary?







functional-analysis banach-spaces machine-learning fixed-point-theorems






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asked Nov 17 at 7:21









Nancy Zhang

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  • If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
    – OnceUponACrinoid
    Nov 17 at 7:24










  • $mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 17 at 12:09


















  • If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
    – OnceUponACrinoid
    Nov 17 at 7:24










  • $mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 17 at 12:09
















If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
– OnceUponACrinoid
Nov 17 at 7:24




If you're asking if contraction in each step is necessary for convergence, then yes you're right - it is not necessary
– OnceUponACrinoid
Nov 17 at 7:24












$mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 17 at 12:09




$mathbb R$ is a Banach space and $f(x)=2x$ is map with a unique fixed point. It is not a contraction.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 17 at 12:09















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