Inverse Function like theorem for monotoncity
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Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind
If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?
calculus
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind
If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?
calculus
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"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
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– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
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Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
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– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
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@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
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– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
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Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
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– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
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For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
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– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind
If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?
calculus
$endgroup$
Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind
If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?
calculus
calculus
asked Dec 5 '18 at 19:58
henceprovedhenceproved
1628
1628
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"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
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– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
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@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.
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Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
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– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
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It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
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– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
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active
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$begingroup$
Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.
$endgroup$
Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.
answered Dec 6 '18 at 11:03
preferred_anonpreferred_anon
13k11742
13k11742
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.
$endgroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.
answered Dec 5 '18 at 20:11
Michael HoppeMichael Hoppe
11.1k31837
11.1k31837
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02
$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06
$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10
$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13
$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16