Inverse Function like theorem for monotoncity












0












$begingroup$


Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind




If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?











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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:06












  • $begingroup$
    @MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
















0












$begingroup$


Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind




If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    "Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:06












  • $begingroup$
    @MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:16














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind




If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Inverse function theorem says that locally a function is $1-1$ if its derivate is non-zero. Do we have a similar conclusion for monotonous function i.e. statement of the following kind




If $f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$, then their exists an open ball around $x_0$ such that $f(x)$ is monotonous?








calculus






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 5 '18 at 19:58









henceprovedhenceproved

1628




1628












  • $begingroup$
    "Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:06












  • $begingroup$
    @MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:16


















  • $begingroup$
    "Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:02










  • $begingroup$
    Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:06












  • $begingroup$
    @MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:10










  • $begingroup$
    Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
    $endgroup$
    – Rebellos
    Dec 5 '18 at 20:16
















$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02




$begingroup$
"Open ball" doesn't have much sense over an one variable function. Probably you mean an "interval".
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:02












$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06






$begingroup$
Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:06














$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10




$begingroup$
@MichaelHoppe I don't think $f(x)$ is continuous on an interval? It is only continuous at a point.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 5 '18 at 20:10












$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13




$begingroup$
Well, you asked for a function, such "$f(x)$ is continuous and has a non-zero derivative at $x_0$". I gave you one.
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Dec 5 '18 at 20:13












$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16




$begingroup$
For the "lemma" you want to derive, you may need a more special "smoothness" and characteristics in general of any functions regarded. Simple continuity won't do the trick.
$endgroup$
– Rebellos
Dec 5 '18 at 20:16










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – preferred_anon
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16



















0












$begingroup$

Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.



All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 0:11











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – preferred_anon
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
















1












$begingroup$

Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – preferred_anon
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Differentiability is not enough but continuous differentiability is. $f(x) = x^{2}sin(1/x) + x$ is differentiable at $0$ with derivative $1$, but is not monotonic on any interval containing $0$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 6 '18 at 11:03









preferred_anonpreferred_anon

13k11742




13k11742












  • $begingroup$
    Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – preferred_anon
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16


















  • $begingroup$
    Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – preferred_anon
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
















$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14




$begingroup$
Is the theorem well know, if so then can you point out to the source or else can you show me how to prove it?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14












$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16




$begingroup$
It's the Inverse Function Theorem in 1 dimension.
$endgroup$
– preferred_anon
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16











0












$begingroup$

Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.



All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
















0












$begingroup$

Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.



All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 0:11














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.



All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Consider $fcolon(-1,1)tomathbb R$ defined by $f(x)=tan(x)$ for rational $x$ and $f(x)=x$ otherwise. Now $f$ is continuous in $x_0=0$ with derivative $f'(0)=1$, but there doesn't exist a neighbourhood of $x_0$ where $f$ is monotonous.



All we can say here that there's a "punctual" monotony: We only can claim that for $x<0<y$ we have $f(x)<f(y)$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 5 '18 at 20:11









Michael HoppeMichael Hoppe

11.1k31837




11.1k31837












  • $begingroup$
    The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 0:11


















  • $begingroup$
    The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 0:11
















$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11




$begingroup$
The $f(x)$ that you construct is not a continuous function on any interval. My question loosely is if $f(x)$ is continuous in an interval, then does their exists an subinterval where $f(x)$ is monotonous.
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 0:11


















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