Integration by parts for an oscillatory integral












0












$begingroup$


I want to understand a certain integration by parts argument in Treves' book Introduction to Pseudodifferential and Fourier Integral Operators (It appears in the proof of Theorem 4.1). Here is a self-contained description of the result:



Let $b:Omegatimes Omega times mathbb{R^n}rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an amplitude of order $min mathbb{R}$ on an open subset $Omegasubset mathbb{R}^n$. That means $b$ is smooth and for every compact set $Ksubset Omegatimes Omega$ there is a constant $C>0$ such that
$$
vert D^alpha_xD^beta_yD^gamma_{xi}b(x,y,xi)vert le C (1+vert xivert^2)^{(m-vert gammavert )/2} quad text{for } (x,y)in K, xi in mathbb{R^n},
$$

where $D^alpha=i^{-vert alphavert}partial_1^{alpha_1}dots partial_n^{alpha_n}$. Now fix some multiindex $alpha$ and consider
$$
b_alpha(x,y,xi)=(y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)quad text{and} quad tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)=D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi),
$$

both of which are amplitudes having orders $m$ and $m -vert alphavert$ respectively. Treves claimes that both amplitudes give rise to the same pseudodifferential operators and proves this by by the following integration by parts for the respective Schwartz kernels $k_alpha$ and $tilde k_alpha$:



$$
begin{align}
k_alpha(x,y)
&:=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
&= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(y-x)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
&= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(-D_xi)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
&= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
&= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} =: tilde k_alpha(x,y).
end{align}
$$

Note that all the integrals are to be understood as oscillatory integrals, so the integration by parts needs further justification.



Here is how I want to justify the integration by parts: Take $chi:mathbb{R}^nrightarrow[0,1]$ smooth, $chi equiv 1$ in a neighbourhood of $0$ and $chi(xi)=0$ for $vert xivert ge 1$. Define
$$
k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y):=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} (y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)chi(epsilon xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
$$

then $k_{alpha,epsilon}in C^infty(Omegatimes Omega)$ and $k_{alpha,epsilon} rightarrow k_alpha$ as distributions on $Omegatimes Omega$ (by the definition of oscillatory integrals). Now for each of the regularised integrals we can perform the desired integration by parts and use the Leibniz rule to find that
$$
k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y)=sum_{0le nule alpha } k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y),
$$

where
$$
k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = int_mathbb{R^n}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} epsilon^{vert nuvert} D^nuchi(epsilon xi) a^nu(x,y,xi) frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
$$

where $a^nu$ is an amplitude of order $m-vert alphavert + nu$. In particular, for $nu=0$ we have $a^nu = tilde b_alpha$ and thus $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow tilde k_alpha$ as distributions (again by the very definition of oscillatory integrals).



Question 1: In order to complete the justification, we need to prove that $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow 0$ as distribution on $OmegatimesOmega$, when $nuneq 0$. Is this correct and are my considerations so far OK?



Here are my thoughts so far: Upon the change of variable $eta = epsilon xi$ we have
$$
k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = epsilon^{vert nuvert - n } int_mathbb{R^n}e^{iepsilon^{-1} (x-y)cdot eta} D^nuchi(eta) a^nu(x,y,epsilon^{-1} eta) frac{deta}{(2pi)^n}
$$

and after taking absolute values of the integrand and using the amplitude estimate we find (for $(x,y)$ lying in a compact set $K$)
$$
vert k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) vert lesssim_K epsilon^{nu - n } cdot epsilon^{-(m-vert alphavert + nu)} = epsilon^{vert alpha vert -(m+n)},
$$

which tends to $0$ for large enough $alpha$. This is in general not enough and further it strikes me as odd that this result seems to be independent of $nu$ (wouldn't this imply that $tilde k_alpha = 0$ for high enough $alpha$?). To get better estimates, do we maybe need some kind of stationary phase argument? (But how to use it here: The symbol we are integrating against the oscillation depends on $epsilon$ as well.)



Question 2: My estimates seem to be faulty because I don't believe in the consequence it would have for high $alpha$. Where is my mistake? How to save the argument?










share|cite|improve this question











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    0












    $begingroup$


    I want to understand a certain integration by parts argument in Treves' book Introduction to Pseudodifferential and Fourier Integral Operators (It appears in the proof of Theorem 4.1). Here is a self-contained description of the result:



    Let $b:Omegatimes Omega times mathbb{R^n}rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an amplitude of order $min mathbb{R}$ on an open subset $Omegasubset mathbb{R}^n$. That means $b$ is smooth and for every compact set $Ksubset Omegatimes Omega$ there is a constant $C>0$ such that
    $$
    vert D^alpha_xD^beta_yD^gamma_{xi}b(x,y,xi)vert le C (1+vert xivert^2)^{(m-vert gammavert )/2} quad text{for } (x,y)in K, xi in mathbb{R^n},
    $$

    where $D^alpha=i^{-vert alphavert}partial_1^{alpha_1}dots partial_n^{alpha_n}$. Now fix some multiindex $alpha$ and consider
    $$
    b_alpha(x,y,xi)=(y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)quad text{and} quad tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)=D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi),
    $$

    both of which are amplitudes having orders $m$ and $m -vert alphavert$ respectively. Treves claimes that both amplitudes give rise to the same pseudodifferential operators and proves this by by the following integration by parts for the respective Schwartz kernels $k_alpha$ and $tilde k_alpha$:



    $$
    begin{align}
    k_alpha(x,y)
    &:=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
    &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(y-x)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
    &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(-D_xi)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
    &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
    &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} =: tilde k_alpha(x,y).
    end{align}
    $$

    Note that all the integrals are to be understood as oscillatory integrals, so the integration by parts needs further justification.



    Here is how I want to justify the integration by parts: Take $chi:mathbb{R}^nrightarrow[0,1]$ smooth, $chi equiv 1$ in a neighbourhood of $0$ and $chi(xi)=0$ for $vert xivert ge 1$. Define
    $$
    k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y):=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} (y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)chi(epsilon xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
    $$

    then $k_{alpha,epsilon}in C^infty(Omegatimes Omega)$ and $k_{alpha,epsilon} rightarrow k_alpha$ as distributions on $Omegatimes Omega$ (by the definition of oscillatory integrals). Now for each of the regularised integrals we can perform the desired integration by parts and use the Leibniz rule to find that
    $$
    k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y)=sum_{0le nule alpha } k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y),
    $$

    where
    $$
    k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = int_mathbb{R^n}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} epsilon^{vert nuvert} D^nuchi(epsilon xi) a^nu(x,y,xi) frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
    $$

    where $a^nu$ is an amplitude of order $m-vert alphavert + nu$. In particular, for $nu=0$ we have $a^nu = tilde b_alpha$ and thus $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow tilde k_alpha$ as distributions (again by the very definition of oscillatory integrals).



    Question 1: In order to complete the justification, we need to prove that $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow 0$ as distribution on $OmegatimesOmega$, when $nuneq 0$. Is this correct and are my considerations so far OK?



    Here are my thoughts so far: Upon the change of variable $eta = epsilon xi$ we have
    $$
    k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = epsilon^{vert nuvert - n } int_mathbb{R^n}e^{iepsilon^{-1} (x-y)cdot eta} D^nuchi(eta) a^nu(x,y,epsilon^{-1} eta) frac{deta}{(2pi)^n}
    $$

    and after taking absolute values of the integrand and using the amplitude estimate we find (for $(x,y)$ lying in a compact set $K$)
    $$
    vert k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) vert lesssim_K epsilon^{nu - n } cdot epsilon^{-(m-vert alphavert + nu)} = epsilon^{vert alpha vert -(m+n)},
    $$

    which tends to $0$ for large enough $alpha$. This is in general not enough and further it strikes me as odd that this result seems to be independent of $nu$ (wouldn't this imply that $tilde k_alpha = 0$ for high enough $alpha$?). To get better estimates, do we maybe need some kind of stationary phase argument? (But how to use it here: The symbol we are integrating against the oscillation depends on $epsilon$ as well.)



    Question 2: My estimates seem to be faulty because I don't believe in the consequence it would have for high $alpha$. Where is my mistake? How to save the argument?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0


      2



      $begingroup$


      I want to understand a certain integration by parts argument in Treves' book Introduction to Pseudodifferential and Fourier Integral Operators (It appears in the proof of Theorem 4.1). Here is a self-contained description of the result:



      Let $b:Omegatimes Omega times mathbb{R^n}rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an amplitude of order $min mathbb{R}$ on an open subset $Omegasubset mathbb{R}^n$. That means $b$ is smooth and for every compact set $Ksubset Omegatimes Omega$ there is a constant $C>0$ such that
      $$
      vert D^alpha_xD^beta_yD^gamma_{xi}b(x,y,xi)vert le C (1+vert xivert^2)^{(m-vert gammavert )/2} quad text{for } (x,y)in K, xi in mathbb{R^n},
      $$

      where $D^alpha=i^{-vert alphavert}partial_1^{alpha_1}dots partial_n^{alpha_n}$. Now fix some multiindex $alpha$ and consider
      $$
      b_alpha(x,y,xi)=(y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)quad text{and} quad tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)=D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi),
      $$

      both of which are amplitudes having orders $m$ and $m -vert alphavert$ respectively. Treves claimes that both amplitudes give rise to the same pseudodifferential operators and proves this by by the following integration by parts for the respective Schwartz kernels $k_alpha$ and $tilde k_alpha$:



      $$
      begin{align}
      k_alpha(x,y)
      &:=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(y-x)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(-D_xi)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} =: tilde k_alpha(x,y).
      end{align}
      $$

      Note that all the integrals are to be understood as oscillatory integrals, so the integration by parts needs further justification.



      Here is how I want to justify the integration by parts: Take $chi:mathbb{R}^nrightarrow[0,1]$ smooth, $chi equiv 1$ in a neighbourhood of $0$ and $chi(xi)=0$ for $vert xivert ge 1$. Define
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y):=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} (y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)chi(epsilon xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
      $$

      then $k_{alpha,epsilon}in C^infty(Omegatimes Omega)$ and $k_{alpha,epsilon} rightarrow k_alpha$ as distributions on $Omegatimes Omega$ (by the definition of oscillatory integrals). Now for each of the regularised integrals we can perform the desired integration by parts and use the Leibniz rule to find that
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y)=sum_{0le nule alpha } k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y),
      $$

      where
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = int_mathbb{R^n}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} epsilon^{vert nuvert} D^nuchi(epsilon xi) a^nu(x,y,xi) frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
      $$

      where $a^nu$ is an amplitude of order $m-vert alphavert + nu$. In particular, for $nu=0$ we have $a^nu = tilde b_alpha$ and thus $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow tilde k_alpha$ as distributions (again by the very definition of oscillatory integrals).



      Question 1: In order to complete the justification, we need to prove that $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow 0$ as distribution on $OmegatimesOmega$, when $nuneq 0$. Is this correct and are my considerations so far OK?



      Here are my thoughts so far: Upon the change of variable $eta = epsilon xi$ we have
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = epsilon^{vert nuvert - n } int_mathbb{R^n}e^{iepsilon^{-1} (x-y)cdot eta} D^nuchi(eta) a^nu(x,y,epsilon^{-1} eta) frac{deta}{(2pi)^n}
      $$

      and after taking absolute values of the integrand and using the amplitude estimate we find (for $(x,y)$ lying in a compact set $K$)
      $$
      vert k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) vert lesssim_K epsilon^{nu - n } cdot epsilon^{-(m-vert alphavert + nu)} = epsilon^{vert alpha vert -(m+n)},
      $$

      which tends to $0$ for large enough $alpha$. This is in general not enough and further it strikes me as odd that this result seems to be independent of $nu$ (wouldn't this imply that $tilde k_alpha = 0$ for high enough $alpha$?). To get better estimates, do we maybe need some kind of stationary phase argument? (But how to use it here: The symbol we are integrating against the oscillation depends on $epsilon$ as well.)



      Question 2: My estimates seem to be faulty because I don't believe in the consequence it would have for high $alpha$. Where is my mistake? How to save the argument?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I want to understand a certain integration by parts argument in Treves' book Introduction to Pseudodifferential and Fourier Integral Operators (It appears in the proof of Theorem 4.1). Here is a self-contained description of the result:



      Let $b:Omegatimes Omega times mathbb{R^n}rightarrow mathbb{C}$ be an amplitude of order $min mathbb{R}$ on an open subset $Omegasubset mathbb{R}^n$. That means $b$ is smooth and for every compact set $Ksubset Omegatimes Omega$ there is a constant $C>0$ such that
      $$
      vert D^alpha_xD^beta_yD^gamma_{xi}b(x,y,xi)vert le C (1+vert xivert^2)^{(m-vert gammavert )/2} quad text{for } (x,y)in K, xi in mathbb{R^n},
      $$

      where $D^alpha=i^{-vert alphavert}partial_1^{alpha_1}dots partial_n^{alpha_n}$. Now fix some multiindex $alpha$ and consider
      $$
      b_alpha(x,y,xi)=(y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)quad text{and} quad tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)=D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi),
      $$

      both of which are amplitudes having orders $m$ and $m -vert alphavert$ respectively. Treves claimes that both amplitudes give rise to the same pseudodifferential operators and proves this by by the following integration by parts for the respective Schwartz kernels $k_alpha$ and $tilde k_alpha$:



      $$
      begin{align}
      k_alpha(x,y)
      &:=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(y-x)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}}(-D_xi)^alpha e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} D_xi^alpha b(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} \
      &= int_{mathbb{R^n}} e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} tilde b_alpha(x,y,xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n} =: tilde k_alpha(x,y).
      end{align}
      $$

      Note that all the integrals are to be understood as oscillatory integrals, so the integration by parts needs further justification.



      Here is how I want to justify the integration by parts: Take $chi:mathbb{R}^nrightarrow[0,1]$ smooth, $chi equiv 1$ in a neighbourhood of $0$ and $chi(xi)=0$ for $vert xivert ge 1$. Define
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y):=int_{mathbb{R^n}}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} (y-x)^alpha b(x,y,xi)chi(epsilon xi)frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
      $$

      then $k_{alpha,epsilon}in C^infty(Omegatimes Omega)$ and $k_{alpha,epsilon} rightarrow k_alpha$ as distributions on $Omegatimes Omega$ (by the definition of oscillatory integrals). Now for each of the regularised integrals we can perform the desired integration by parts and use the Leibniz rule to find that
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}(x,y)=sum_{0le nule alpha } k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y),
      $$

      where
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = int_mathbb{R^n}e^{i(x-y)cdot xi} epsilon^{vert nuvert} D^nuchi(epsilon xi) a^nu(x,y,xi) frac{dxi}{(2pi)^n},
      $$

      where $a^nu$ is an amplitude of order $m-vert alphavert + nu$. In particular, for $nu=0$ we have $a^nu = tilde b_alpha$ and thus $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow tilde k_alpha$ as distributions (again by the very definition of oscillatory integrals).



      Question 1: In order to complete the justification, we need to prove that $k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu rightarrow 0$ as distribution on $OmegatimesOmega$, when $nuneq 0$. Is this correct and are my considerations so far OK?



      Here are my thoughts so far: Upon the change of variable $eta = epsilon xi$ we have
      $$
      k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) = epsilon^{vert nuvert - n } int_mathbb{R^n}e^{iepsilon^{-1} (x-y)cdot eta} D^nuchi(eta) a^nu(x,y,epsilon^{-1} eta) frac{deta}{(2pi)^n}
      $$

      and after taking absolute values of the integrand and using the amplitude estimate we find (for $(x,y)$ lying in a compact set $K$)
      $$
      vert k_{alpha,epsilon}^nu(x,y) vert lesssim_K epsilon^{nu - n } cdot epsilon^{-(m-vert alphavert + nu)} = epsilon^{vert alpha vert -(m+n)},
      $$

      which tends to $0$ for large enough $alpha$. This is in general not enough and further it strikes me as odd that this result seems to be independent of $nu$ (wouldn't this imply that $tilde k_alpha = 0$ for high enough $alpha$?). To get better estimates, do we maybe need some kind of stationary phase argument? (But how to use it here: The symbol we are integrating against the oscillation depends on $epsilon$ as well.)



      Question 2: My estimates seem to be faulty because I don't believe in the consequence it would have for high $alpha$. Where is my mistake? How to save the argument?







      real-analysis pseudo-differential-operators microlocal-analysis oscillatory-integral






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 5 '18 at 18:39







      Jan Bohr

















      asked Dec 5 '18 at 11:47









      Jan BohrJan Bohr

      3,3071521




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