Limit of a derivative of function at infinity












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If we have a differentiable function $f:(0,∞) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that derivative $f'(t)$ tends to zero as $t rightarrow ∞$ and for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ (finite) as $n rightarrow ∞$, then how do we show that $f(t) rightarrow l$ as $t (in mathbb{R}) rightarrow ∞$.



What I don't understand is that if for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ as $n rightarrow ∞$, then shouldn't this hold for any real number $t$ as well? We can always find an integer greater than any real number. What is the use of limit of derivative in solving this question?










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    $begingroup$


    If we have a differentiable function $f:(0,∞) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that derivative $f'(t)$ tends to zero as $t rightarrow ∞$ and for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ (finite) as $n rightarrow ∞$, then how do we show that $f(t) rightarrow l$ as $t (in mathbb{R}) rightarrow ∞$.



    What I don't understand is that if for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ as $n rightarrow ∞$, then shouldn't this hold for any real number $t$ as well? We can always find an integer greater than any real number. What is the use of limit of derivative in solving this question?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















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      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      If we have a differentiable function $f:(0,∞) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that derivative $f'(t)$ tends to zero as $t rightarrow ∞$ and for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ (finite) as $n rightarrow ∞$, then how do we show that $f(t) rightarrow l$ as $t (in mathbb{R}) rightarrow ∞$.



      What I don't understand is that if for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ as $n rightarrow ∞$, then shouldn't this hold for any real number $t$ as well? We can always find an integer greater than any real number. What is the use of limit of derivative in solving this question?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      If we have a differentiable function $f:(0,∞) rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that derivative $f'(t)$ tends to zero as $t rightarrow ∞$ and for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ (finite) as $n rightarrow ∞$, then how do we show that $f(t) rightarrow l$ as $t (in mathbb{R}) rightarrow ∞$.



      What I don't understand is that if for $n in mathbb{Z}, f(n) rightarrow l$ as $n rightarrow ∞$, then shouldn't this hold for any real number $t$ as well? We can always find an integer greater than any real number. What is the use of limit of derivative in solving this question?







      sequences-and-series limits analysis derivatives






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      asked Dec 2 '18 at 20:42









      SALONI SINHASALONI SINHA

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          Take the function $f(t) = sin (pi t)$ and $l=0$. Then $f(n) = 0$ for all $n$ but $f(n+{ 1 over 2}) = 1$ for all $n$.



          You need to have a condition that limits the behaviour of $f$ on $(n,n+1)$ for
          large $n$. This is what the $f'(t) to 0$ condition does.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            We have that $forall xin[n,n+1]$ by MVT



            $$frac{f(x)-f(n)}{x-n}=f'(c) quad cin(n,n+1) implies |f(x)-f(n)|=(x-n)|f'(c)|le |f'(c)|to 0$$






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              $begingroup$

              Take the function $f(t) = sin (pi t)$ and $l=0$. Then $f(n) = 0$ for all $n$ but $f(n+{ 1 over 2}) = 1$ for all $n$.



              You need to have a condition that limits the behaviour of $f$ on $(n,n+1)$ for
              large $n$. This is what the $f'(t) to 0$ condition does.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Take the function $f(t) = sin (pi t)$ and $l=0$. Then $f(n) = 0$ for all $n$ but $f(n+{ 1 over 2}) = 1$ for all $n$.



                You need to have a condition that limits the behaviour of $f$ on $(n,n+1)$ for
                large $n$. This is what the $f'(t) to 0$ condition does.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Take the function $f(t) = sin (pi t)$ and $l=0$. Then $f(n) = 0$ for all $n$ but $f(n+{ 1 over 2}) = 1$ for all $n$.



                  You need to have a condition that limits the behaviour of $f$ on $(n,n+1)$ for
                  large $n$. This is what the $f'(t) to 0$ condition does.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Take the function $f(t) = sin (pi t)$ and $l=0$. Then $f(n) = 0$ for all $n$ but $f(n+{ 1 over 2}) = 1$ for all $n$.



                  You need to have a condition that limits the behaviour of $f$ on $(n,n+1)$ for
                  large $n$. This is what the $f'(t) to 0$ condition does.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 2 '18 at 20:53









                  copper.hatcopper.hat

                  127k559160




                  127k559160























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      We have that $forall xin[n,n+1]$ by MVT



                      $$frac{f(x)-f(n)}{x-n}=f'(c) quad cin(n,n+1) implies |f(x)-f(n)|=(x-n)|f'(c)|le |f'(c)|to 0$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        We have that $forall xin[n,n+1]$ by MVT



                        $$frac{f(x)-f(n)}{x-n}=f'(c) quad cin(n,n+1) implies |f(x)-f(n)|=(x-n)|f'(c)|le |f'(c)|to 0$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          We have that $forall xin[n,n+1]$ by MVT



                          $$frac{f(x)-f(n)}{x-n}=f'(c) quad cin(n,n+1) implies |f(x)-f(n)|=(x-n)|f'(c)|le |f'(c)|to 0$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          We have that $forall xin[n,n+1]$ by MVT



                          $$frac{f(x)-f(n)}{x-n}=f'(c) quad cin(n,n+1) implies |f(x)-f(n)|=(x-n)|f'(c)|le |f'(c)|to 0$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 2 '18 at 20:46









                          gimusigimusi

                          92.8k84494




                          92.8k84494






























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