Prove that $P_{f}(X) = prod_{i=1}^{l} (X - a_i)^{n_i} prod_{j=1}^{m} (X^2 + a_jX + b_j)^{q_j} $.
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a linear map in a real finite dimension vector space $E$.
Prove that the characteristic polynomial of $f$ can be factorized in the form:
$P_{f}(X) = prod_{i=1}^{l} (X - a_i)^{n_i} prod_{j=1}^{m} (X^2 + a_jX + b_j)^{q_j} $
I have thought of using proof by induction.
In one dimensional vector space, it is true.
If we suppose it is true for dimension $n$.
For the case of $n +1$, let $g$ be linear map in an $(n+1)$ dimension vector space.
If we wrote the matrix of $g$ in a basis, we'll have:
$P_g(X) = (a_{11} - X) P(X) + R(X) $
$P(X)$ can be factorized since it is the characteristic polynomial of degree $n$.
I do not know how to get the full factorization of the polynomial.
I might be wrong using the induction, another method would be appreciated.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra polynomials linear-transformations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a linear map in a real finite dimension vector space $E$.
Prove that the characteristic polynomial of $f$ can be factorized in the form:
$P_{f}(X) = prod_{i=1}^{l} (X - a_i)^{n_i} prod_{j=1}^{m} (X^2 + a_jX + b_j)^{q_j} $
I have thought of using proof by induction.
In one dimensional vector space, it is true.
If we suppose it is true for dimension $n$.
For the case of $n +1$, let $g$ be linear map in an $(n+1)$ dimension vector space.
If we wrote the matrix of $g$ in a basis, we'll have:
$P_g(X) = (a_{11} - X) P(X) + R(X) $
$P(X)$ can be factorized since it is the characteristic polynomial of degree $n$.
I do not know how to get the full factorization of the polynomial.
I might be wrong using the induction, another method would be appreciated.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra polynomials linear-transformations
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
$endgroup$
– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ be a linear map in a real finite dimension vector space $E$.
Prove that the characteristic polynomial of $f$ can be factorized in the form:
$P_{f}(X) = prod_{i=1}^{l} (X - a_i)^{n_i} prod_{j=1}^{m} (X^2 + a_jX + b_j)^{q_j} $
I have thought of using proof by induction.
In one dimensional vector space, it is true.
If we suppose it is true for dimension $n$.
For the case of $n +1$, let $g$ be linear map in an $(n+1)$ dimension vector space.
If we wrote the matrix of $g$ in a basis, we'll have:
$P_g(X) = (a_{11} - X) P(X) + R(X) $
$P(X)$ can be factorized since it is the characteristic polynomial of degree $n$.
I do not know how to get the full factorization of the polynomial.
I might be wrong using the induction, another method would be appreciated.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra polynomials linear-transformations
$endgroup$
Let $f$ be a linear map in a real finite dimension vector space $E$.
Prove that the characteristic polynomial of $f$ can be factorized in the form:
$P_{f}(X) = prod_{i=1}^{l} (X - a_i)^{n_i} prod_{j=1}^{m} (X^2 + a_jX + b_j)^{q_j} $
I have thought of using proof by induction.
In one dimensional vector space, it is true.
If we suppose it is true for dimension $n$.
For the case of $n +1$, let $g$ be linear map in an $(n+1)$ dimension vector space.
If we wrote the matrix of $g$ in a basis, we'll have:
$P_g(X) = (a_{11} - X) P(X) + R(X) $
$P(X)$ can be factorized since it is the characteristic polynomial of degree $n$.
I do not know how to get the full factorization of the polynomial.
I might be wrong using the induction, another method would be appreciated.
linear-algebra abstract-algebra polynomials linear-transformations
linear-algebra abstract-algebra polynomials linear-transformations
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:27
Scientifica
6,77641335
6,77641335
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:59
Zouhair El YaagoubiZouhair El Yaagoubi
538411
538411
$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
$endgroup$
– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
$endgroup$
– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23
$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
$endgroup$
– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
$endgroup$
– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23
$begingroup$
@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is mainly algebra of polynomials rather than linear algebra. In fact:
Any polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$ can be written in the form
$$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X^2+b_iX+c_i)^{q_i}right)$$
where $l,m,n_i,q_iinmathbb N$, $lambda,a_i,b_i,c_iinmathbb R$ and $b_i^2-4c_i<0$. (notice that $lambda$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$)
For the above to hold, keep in mind the convention $prod_{i=1}^0alpha_i=1$ for any $alpha_i$.
Now for your exercise, you know that the leading coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is $lambda=1$.
To prove the fact stated above, use the fundamental theorem of algebra, which says that any non constant polynomial over $mathbb C$ has at least one root. In particular, given a non constant polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$, you know that it has at least one root $zinmathbb C$. So $P(X)=(X-z)Q(X)$ with $deg Q(X)<deg P(X)$. With this you can prove by induction that $$P(X)=lambda prod_{i=1}^n(X-z_i)^{n_i}$$ where $lambdainmathbb R$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$, $n_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb C$.
If all the roots of $P(X)$ are real, we're done: all $z_iinmathbb R$.
If $P(X)$ has no real root, then all the $z_i$ are in $mathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Now, you notice that $P(overline{z_i})=overline{P(z_i)}=0$ because the coefficients of $P(X)$ are real, and because $z_inotinmathbb R$, $overline{z_i}neq z_i$. So you can actually write your polynomial in the form $$prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{q_i}(X-overline{z_i})^{q_i}.$$ Notice that $(X-z_i)(X-overline{z_i})=X^2-2Re(z_i)X+|z_i|^2.$
- Otherwise, isolate the reals from the non reals, so you can rewrite your polynomial (renaming) as $$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{p_i}right)$$ where $lambda,a_iinmathbb R$, $l,m,n_i,p_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Then you can conclude just as above.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
|
show 5 more comments
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1 Answer
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oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is mainly algebra of polynomials rather than linear algebra. In fact:
Any polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$ can be written in the form
$$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X^2+b_iX+c_i)^{q_i}right)$$
where $l,m,n_i,q_iinmathbb N$, $lambda,a_i,b_i,c_iinmathbb R$ and $b_i^2-4c_i<0$. (notice that $lambda$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$)
For the above to hold, keep in mind the convention $prod_{i=1}^0alpha_i=1$ for any $alpha_i$.
Now for your exercise, you know that the leading coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is $lambda=1$.
To prove the fact stated above, use the fundamental theorem of algebra, which says that any non constant polynomial over $mathbb C$ has at least one root. In particular, given a non constant polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$, you know that it has at least one root $zinmathbb C$. So $P(X)=(X-z)Q(X)$ with $deg Q(X)<deg P(X)$. With this you can prove by induction that $$P(X)=lambda prod_{i=1}^n(X-z_i)^{n_i}$$ where $lambdainmathbb R$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$, $n_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb C$.
If all the roots of $P(X)$ are real, we're done: all $z_iinmathbb R$.
If $P(X)$ has no real root, then all the $z_i$ are in $mathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Now, you notice that $P(overline{z_i})=overline{P(z_i)}=0$ because the coefficients of $P(X)$ are real, and because $z_inotinmathbb R$, $overline{z_i}neq z_i$. So you can actually write your polynomial in the form $$prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{q_i}(X-overline{z_i})^{q_i}.$$ Notice that $(X-z_i)(X-overline{z_i})=X^2-2Re(z_i)X+|z_i|^2.$
- Otherwise, isolate the reals from the non reals, so you can rewrite your polynomial (renaming) as $$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{p_i}right)$$ where $lambda,a_iinmathbb R$, $l,m,n_i,p_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Then you can conclude just as above.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
This is mainly algebra of polynomials rather than linear algebra. In fact:
Any polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$ can be written in the form
$$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X^2+b_iX+c_i)^{q_i}right)$$
where $l,m,n_i,q_iinmathbb N$, $lambda,a_i,b_i,c_iinmathbb R$ and $b_i^2-4c_i<0$. (notice that $lambda$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$)
For the above to hold, keep in mind the convention $prod_{i=1}^0alpha_i=1$ for any $alpha_i$.
Now for your exercise, you know that the leading coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is $lambda=1$.
To prove the fact stated above, use the fundamental theorem of algebra, which says that any non constant polynomial over $mathbb C$ has at least one root. In particular, given a non constant polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$, you know that it has at least one root $zinmathbb C$. So $P(X)=(X-z)Q(X)$ with $deg Q(X)<deg P(X)$. With this you can prove by induction that $$P(X)=lambda prod_{i=1}^n(X-z_i)^{n_i}$$ where $lambdainmathbb R$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$, $n_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb C$.
If all the roots of $P(X)$ are real, we're done: all $z_iinmathbb R$.
If $P(X)$ has no real root, then all the $z_i$ are in $mathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Now, you notice that $P(overline{z_i})=overline{P(z_i)}=0$ because the coefficients of $P(X)$ are real, and because $z_inotinmathbb R$, $overline{z_i}neq z_i$. So you can actually write your polynomial in the form $$prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{q_i}(X-overline{z_i})^{q_i}.$$ Notice that $(X-z_i)(X-overline{z_i})=X^2-2Re(z_i)X+|z_i|^2.$
- Otherwise, isolate the reals from the non reals, so you can rewrite your polynomial (renaming) as $$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{p_i}right)$$ where $lambda,a_iinmathbb R$, $l,m,n_i,p_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Then you can conclude just as above.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
This is mainly algebra of polynomials rather than linear algebra. In fact:
Any polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$ can be written in the form
$$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X^2+b_iX+c_i)^{q_i}right)$$
where $l,m,n_i,q_iinmathbb N$, $lambda,a_i,b_i,c_iinmathbb R$ and $b_i^2-4c_i<0$. (notice that $lambda$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$)
For the above to hold, keep in mind the convention $prod_{i=1}^0alpha_i=1$ for any $alpha_i$.
Now for your exercise, you know that the leading coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is $lambda=1$.
To prove the fact stated above, use the fundamental theorem of algebra, which says that any non constant polynomial over $mathbb C$ has at least one root. In particular, given a non constant polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$, you know that it has at least one root $zinmathbb C$. So $P(X)=(X-z)Q(X)$ with $deg Q(X)<deg P(X)$. With this you can prove by induction that $$P(X)=lambda prod_{i=1}^n(X-z_i)^{n_i}$$ where $lambdainmathbb R$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$, $n_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb C$.
If all the roots of $P(X)$ are real, we're done: all $z_iinmathbb R$.
If $P(X)$ has no real root, then all the $z_i$ are in $mathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Now, you notice that $P(overline{z_i})=overline{P(z_i)}=0$ because the coefficients of $P(X)$ are real, and because $z_inotinmathbb R$, $overline{z_i}neq z_i$. So you can actually write your polynomial in the form $$prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{q_i}(X-overline{z_i})^{q_i}.$$ Notice that $(X-z_i)(X-overline{z_i})=X^2-2Re(z_i)X+|z_i|^2.$
- Otherwise, isolate the reals from the non reals, so you can rewrite your polynomial (renaming) as $$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{p_i}right)$$ where $lambda,a_iinmathbb R$, $l,m,n_i,p_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Then you can conclude just as above.
$endgroup$
This is mainly algebra of polynomials rather than linear algebra. In fact:
Any polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$ can be written in the form
$$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X^2+b_iX+c_i)^{q_i}right)$$
where $l,m,n_i,q_iinmathbb N$, $lambda,a_i,b_i,c_iinmathbb R$ and $b_i^2-4c_i<0$. (notice that $lambda$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$)
For the above to hold, keep in mind the convention $prod_{i=1}^0alpha_i=1$ for any $alpha_i$.
Now for your exercise, you know that the leading coefficient of the characteristic polynomial is $lambda=1$.
To prove the fact stated above, use the fundamental theorem of algebra, which says that any non constant polynomial over $mathbb C$ has at least one root. In particular, given a non constant polynomial $P(X)inmathbb R[X]$, you know that it has at least one root $zinmathbb C$. So $P(X)=(X-z)Q(X)$ with $deg Q(X)<deg P(X)$. With this you can prove by induction that $$P(X)=lambda prod_{i=1}^n(X-z_i)^{n_i}$$ where $lambdainmathbb R$ is the leading coefficient of $P(X)$, $n_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb C$.
If all the roots of $P(X)$ are real, we're done: all $z_iinmathbb R$.
If $P(X)$ has no real root, then all the $z_i$ are in $mathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Now, you notice that $P(overline{z_i})=overline{P(z_i)}=0$ because the coefficients of $P(X)$ are real, and because $z_inotinmathbb R$, $overline{z_i}neq z_i$. So you can actually write your polynomial in the form $$prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{q_i}(X-overline{z_i})^{q_i}.$$ Notice that $(X-z_i)(X-overline{z_i})=X^2-2Re(z_i)X+|z_i|^2.$
- Otherwise, isolate the reals from the non reals, so you can rewrite your polynomial (renaming) as $$P(X)=lambdaleft(prod_{i=1}^l(X-a_i)^{n_i}right)left(prod_{i=1}^m(X-z_i)^{p_i}right)$$ where $lambda,a_iinmathbb R$, $l,m,n_i,p_iinmathbb N$ and $z_iinmathbb Cbackslashmathbb R$. Then you can conclude just as above.
edited Dec 3 '18 at 19:55
darij grinberg
11.3k33164
11.3k33164
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
ScientificaScientifica
6,77641335
6,77641335
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
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– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
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I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
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– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
|
show 5 more comments
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In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
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– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
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@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
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– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
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I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
In the case of the characteristic polynomial, the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Thank you for your help. Accepted answer.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 3 '18 at 14:16
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi It's a pleasure :) Indeed there are people who define the characteristic polynomial as $det(A-XI)$, in this case indeed the leading coefficient is $(-1)^n$. Others define it as $det(XI-A)$, or give an equivalent definition that makes the leading coefficient $1$. Seeing that the $(-1)^n$ is missing in the factorization given in your question, the person who wrote the exercise must assume the latter definition of a characteristic polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 3 '18 at 19:14
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
I have another question, the eigenvalues of $f$ are the roots of the characteristic polynomial. If a root is a complex number, then we will have: $f(v) =lambda v $ which is not in a real vector space as stated in the problem.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 7 '18 at 11:33
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
$begingroup$
@ZouhairElYaagoubi You're right. If we're working in a real vector space, complex roots of the characteristic polynomial can not be eigenvalues. But in a complex vector space, this is true, even if your matrice has real coefficients. It's all a matter of where you take the coefficients of your vector. For example, take the matrix $$A=begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1\ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}.$$ The characteristic polynomial is $X^2+1$. It's roots are $i$ and $-i$. Now, for any $vinmathbb R^2$, surely $Avneq iv$ because $Av$ and $v$ have real coefficients...
$endgroup$
– Scientifica
Dec 7 '18 at 13:13
1
1
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
$begingroup$
I use a tablet, I must removed it by mistake while scrolling down.
$endgroup$
– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 12 '18 at 21:12
|
show 5 more comments
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$begingroup$
Over what field? In $mathbb{R}$, all monics factor like that..
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– Dzoooks
Dec 2 '18 at 22:21
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@Dzoooks Over the field of real numbers.
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– Zouhair El Yaagoubi
Dec 2 '18 at 22:23