If $TM$ is trivial, then $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial and $M$ is orientable
$begingroup$
Suppose that $M$ is a smooth $n-$manifold. Suppose $$ TM=coprod_{pin M}T_pM $$ is the tangent bundle of $M$. And let $$ Lambda^n(M)=coprod_{pin M}Lambda^n(T_pM) $$ where $Lambda^n(T_pM)$ is alternating covariant $n-$tensor product. i.e.
$$Lambda^n(T_pM)=T^*_pMwedge T^*_pM wedge cdots wedge T^*_pM.$$
and
$$dim(Lambda^n(T_pM))=begin{bmatrix} dim(T_pM)\ n end{bmatrix}$$
If $TM$ is trivial, then $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial and $M$ is orientable.
I am trying to understand but seems difficult. I would be very appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.
orientation tangent-bundle
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $M$ is a smooth $n-$manifold. Suppose $$ TM=coprod_{pin M}T_pM $$ is the tangent bundle of $M$. And let $$ Lambda^n(M)=coprod_{pin M}Lambda^n(T_pM) $$ where $Lambda^n(T_pM)$ is alternating covariant $n-$tensor product. i.e.
$$Lambda^n(T_pM)=T^*_pMwedge T^*_pM wedge cdots wedge T^*_pM.$$
and
$$dim(Lambda^n(T_pM))=begin{bmatrix} dim(T_pM)\ n end{bmatrix}$$
If $TM$ is trivial, then $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial and $M$ is orientable.
I am trying to understand but seems difficult. I would be very appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.
orientation tangent-bundle
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose that $M$ is a smooth $n-$manifold. Suppose $$ TM=coprod_{pin M}T_pM $$ is the tangent bundle of $M$. And let $$ Lambda^n(M)=coprod_{pin M}Lambda^n(T_pM) $$ where $Lambda^n(T_pM)$ is alternating covariant $n-$tensor product. i.e.
$$Lambda^n(T_pM)=T^*_pMwedge T^*_pM wedge cdots wedge T^*_pM.$$
and
$$dim(Lambda^n(T_pM))=begin{bmatrix} dim(T_pM)\ n end{bmatrix}$$
If $TM$ is trivial, then $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial and $M$ is orientable.
I am trying to understand but seems difficult. I would be very appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.
orientation tangent-bundle
$endgroup$
Suppose that $M$ is a smooth $n-$manifold. Suppose $$ TM=coprod_{pin M}T_pM $$ is the tangent bundle of $M$. And let $$ Lambda^n(M)=coprod_{pin M}Lambda^n(T_pM) $$ where $Lambda^n(T_pM)$ is alternating covariant $n-$tensor product. i.e.
$$Lambda^n(T_pM)=T^*_pMwedge T^*_pM wedge cdots wedge T^*_pM.$$
and
$$dim(Lambda^n(T_pM))=begin{bmatrix} dim(T_pM)\ n end{bmatrix}$$
If $TM$ is trivial, then $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial and $M$ is orientable.
I am trying to understand but seems difficult. I would be very appreciate any help. Thanks in advance.
orientation tangent-bundle
orientation tangent-bundle
edited Dec 3 '18 at 14:00
Lev Ban
asked Nov 30 '18 at 16:52
Lev BanLev Ban
1,0701317
1,0701317
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
If $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $TM$ is trivial is equivalent to saying that there exists $n$-vector fields $X_1,...,X_n$ such that for every $xin M$, $X_i(x)neq 0$. Take a differentiable metric on $M$ and define the $1$-form $f_i(x)(u)=langle X_i(x),urangle$ where $uin T_xM$, $Lambda^n(M)_x$ is generated by $f_1(x)wedge...wedge f_n(x)$ which is also a volume form on $M$. This implies that $M$ is orientable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
If $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $TM$ is trivial is equivalent to saying that there exists $n$-vector fields $X_1,...,X_n$ such that for every $xin M$, $X_i(x)neq 0$. Take a differentiable metric on $M$ and define the $1$-form $f_i(x)(u)=langle X_i(x),urangle$ where $uin T_xM$, $Lambda^n(M)_x$ is generated by $f_1(x)wedge...wedge f_n(x)$ which is also a volume form on $M$. This implies that $M$ is orientable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $TM$ is trivial is equivalent to saying that there exists $n$-vector fields $X_1,...,X_n$ such that for every $xin M$, $X_i(x)neq 0$. Take a differentiable metric on $M$ and define the $1$-form $f_i(x)(u)=langle X_i(x),urangle$ where $uin T_xM$, $Lambda^n(M)_x$ is generated by $f_1(x)wedge...wedge f_n(x)$ which is also a volume form on $M$. This implies that $M$ is orientable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $TM$ is trivial is equivalent to saying that there exists $n$-vector fields $X_1,...,X_n$ such that for every $xin M$, $X_i(x)neq 0$. Take a differentiable metric on $M$ and define the $1$-form $f_i(x)(u)=langle X_i(x),urangle$ where $uin T_xM$, $Lambda^n(M)_x$ is generated by $f_1(x)wedge...wedge f_n(x)$ which is also a volume form on $M$. This implies that $M$ is orientable.
$endgroup$
If $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $TM$ is trivial is equivalent to saying that there exists $n$-vector fields $X_1,...,X_n$ such that for every $xin M$, $X_i(x)neq 0$. Take a differentiable metric on $M$ and define the $1$-form $f_i(x)(u)=langle X_i(x),urangle$ where $uin T_xM$, $Lambda^n(M)_x$ is generated by $f_1(x)wedge...wedge f_n(x)$ which is also a volume form on $M$. This implies that $M$ is orientable.
answered Nov 30 '18 at 17:01
Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide
58k11445
58k11445
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
Thank you for your answer. But could you let me know why $Lambda^n(M)$ is also trivial?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Nov 30 '18 at 17:09
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
because it is a dim 1 and you have the volume form
$endgroup$
– Tsemo Aristide
Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
add a comment |
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