Range of lottery numbers
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In a choosing 6 from 49 lottery game - I don't want to pick the numbers 48 and 49, so I will only choose numbers between 1 and 47.
What is the probability that all 6 lottery numbers will fall in the range 1-47 ?
probability
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favorite
In a choosing 6 from 49 lottery game - I don't want to pick the numbers 48 and 49, so I will only choose numbers between 1 and 47.
What is the probability that all 6 lottery numbers will fall in the range 1-47 ?
probability
5
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
In a choosing 6 from 49 lottery game - I don't want to pick the numbers 48 and 49, so I will only choose numbers between 1 and 47.
What is the probability that all 6 lottery numbers will fall in the range 1-47 ?
probability
In a choosing 6 from 49 lottery game - I don't want to pick the numbers 48 and 49, so I will only choose numbers between 1 and 47.
What is the probability that all 6 lottery numbers will fall in the range 1-47 ?
probability
probability
asked 3 hours ago
Frankie139
214
214
5
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago
add a comment |
5
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago
5
5
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
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There are $2$ ways:
First:
Just select $6$ numbers from $47$, so that you can win, in $^{47}C_6$ ways.
Total possible selections will be from $49$, i.e. $^{49}C_6$
Divide both to get probability: $$frac{^{47}C_6}{^{49}C_6}$$
Second:
$4$ of the winning numbers will surely lie in $1$ to $47$. You just have to ensure that rest $2$ numbers also lie in $1$ to $47$.
So, now that $4$ numbers out of $1$ to $47$ are already occupied, you are left with $43$.
There are $^{43}C_2$ ways in which you win.
Divide by total ways, i.e. $^{49}C_2$: $$frac{^{43}C_2}{^{49}C_2}$$
Verify if you get the same result!
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
There are $2$ ways:
First:
Just select $6$ numbers from $47$, so that you can win, in $^{47}C_6$ ways.
Total possible selections will be from $49$, i.e. $^{49}C_6$
Divide both to get probability: $$frac{^{47}C_6}{^{49}C_6}$$
Second:
$4$ of the winning numbers will surely lie in $1$ to $47$. You just have to ensure that rest $2$ numbers also lie in $1$ to $47$.
So, now that $4$ numbers out of $1$ to $47$ are already occupied, you are left with $43$.
There are $^{43}C_2$ ways in which you win.
Divide by total ways, i.e. $^{49}C_2$: $$frac{^{43}C_2}{^{49}C_2}$$
Verify if you get the same result!
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
There are $2$ ways:
First:
Just select $6$ numbers from $47$, so that you can win, in $^{47}C_6$ ways.
Total possible selections will be from $49$, i.e. $^{49}C_6$
Divide both to get probability: $$frac{^{47}C_6}{^{49}C_6}$$
Second:
$4$ of the winning numbers will surely lie in $1$ to $47$. You just have to ensure that rest $2$ numbers also lie in $1$ to $47$.
So, now that $4$ numbers out of $1$ to $47$ are already occupied, you are left with $43$.
There are $^{43}C_2$ ways in which you win.
Divide by total ways, i.e. $^{49}C_2$: $$frac{^{43}C_2}{^{49}C_2}$$
Verify if you get the same result!
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
There are $2$ ways:
First:
Just select $6$ numbers from $47$, so that you can win, in $^{47}C_6$ ways.
Total possible selections will be from $49$, i.e. $^{49}C_6$
Divide both to get probability: $$frac{^{47}C_6}{^{49}C_6}$$
Second:
$4$ of the winning numbers will surely lie in $1$ to $47$. You just have to ensure that rest $2$ numbers also lie in $1$ to $47$.
So, now that $4$ numbers out of $1$ to $47$ are already occupied, you are left with $43$.
There are $^{43}C_2$ ways in which you win.
Divide by total ways, i.e. $^{49}C_2$: $$frac{^{43}C_2}{^{49}C_2}$$
Verify if you get the same result!
There are $2$ ways:
First:
Just select $6$ numbers from $47$, so that you can win, in $^{47}C_6$ ways.
Total possible selections will be from $49$, i.e. $^{49}C_6$
Divide both to get probability: $$frac{^{47}C_6}{^{49}C_6}$$
Second:
$4$ of the winning numbers will surely lie in $1$ to $47$. You just have to ensure that rest $2$ numbers also lie in $1$ to $47$.
So, now that $4$ numbers out of $1$ to $47$ are already occupied, you are left with $43$.
There are $^{43}C_2$ ways in which you win.
Divide by total ways, i.e. $^{49}C_2$: $$frac{^{43}C_2}{^{49}C_2}$$
Verify if you get the same result!
answered 1 hour ago
omega
1,7122919
1,7122919
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5
How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-47$? How many ways can you choose $6$ numbers from $1-49$?
– lulu
3 hours ago