How to find $lim_{ntoinfty}(pa_n + qb_n)^n$ with $p + q = 1$?











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Suppose $a_n$ and $b_n$ are sequences of positive numbers, such that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}a_n^n = a,quad lim_{ntoinfty}b_n^n = b,qquad a,bin (0, infty).
$$


Find limit
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(pa_n + qb_n)^n,
$$

where $p, q$ are nonnegative numbers such that $p + q = 1$.











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  • When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:26










  • Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:28















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2













Suppose $a_n$ and $b_n$ are sequences of positive numbers, such that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}a_n^n = a,quad lim_{ntoinfty}b_n^n = b,qquad a,bin (0, infty).
$$


Find limit
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(pa_n + qb_n)^n,
$$

where $p, q$ are nonnegative numbers such that $p + q = 1$.











share|cite|improve this question
























  • When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:26










  • Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:28













up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
2






2






Suppose $a_n$ and $b_n$ are sequences of positive numbers, such that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}a_n^n = a,quad lim_{ntoinfty}b_n^n = b,qquad a,bin (0, infty).
$$


Find limit
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(pa_n + qb_n)^n,
$$

where $p, q$ are nonnegative numbers such that $p + q = 1$.











share|cite|improve this question
















Suppose $a_n$ and $b_n$ are sequences of positive numbers, such that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}a_n^n = a,quad lim_{ntoinfty}b_n^n = b,qquad a,bin (0, infty).
$$


Find limit
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}(pa_n + qb_n)^n,
$$

where $p, q$ are nonnegative numbers such that $p + q = 1$.








calculus sequences-and-series limits






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edited Nov 13 at 1:53









user587192

1,05910




1,05910










asked Nov 13 at 0:04









J. Abraham

486313




486313












  • When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:26










  • Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:28


















  • When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:26










  • Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
    – user587192
    Nov 13 at 1:28
















When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
– user587192
Nov 13 at 1:26




When $a>b$, consider $$(pa_n + qb_n)^n=a^nleft(p+qcdot frac{b_n}{a_n}right)^n.$$
– user587192
Nov 13 at 1:26












Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
– user587192
Nov 13 at 1:28




Very similar: math.stackexchange.com/q/2995279/587192
– user587192
Nov 13 at 1:28










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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up vote
3
down vote



accepted










We use the following lemmas:




Lemma 1: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a>0$. Then $n(a_n^{1/n}-1)tolog a$ (prove it).



Lemma 2 : Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $n(a_n-1)to 0$. Then $a_n^nto 1$.




Consider the sequence ${x_n} $ defined by $$x_n=frac{pa_n+qb_n} {a_n^pb_n^q} $$ and then we have $$n(x_n-1)=frac{n((a_n^{np}
b_n^{nq}) ^{1/n}-1)-pn((a_n^n)^{1/n}-1)-qn((b_n^n)^{1/n}-1)}{a_n^pb_n^q}$$
By lemma $1$ numerator of the above expression tends to $$log(a^pb^q) - plog a-qlog b=0$$ and since $a_nto 1,b_nto 1$ (prove this) the denominator tends to $1$ so that $n(x_n-1)to 0$. Thus by lemma 2 the sequence $x_n^nto 1$ and thus the desired limit is equal to $a^pb^q$.





Alternatively we can use lemma 1 and the following




Lemma 3: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a$ then $$left(1+frac{a_n}{n}right)^nto e^a$$




We can write $$pa_n+qb_n=1+frac{x_n}{n}$$ where $$x_n=pn((a_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)+qn((b_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)$$ and by lemma 1 $$x_nto plog a+qlog b=log(a^pb^q) $$ and therefore by lemma 3 we have $$(pa_n+qb_n)^n=left(1+frac{x_n}{n}right)^nto exp(log(a^pb^q)) =a^pb^q$$






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Write $a_n^n = e^{alpha_n}$ and $b_n^n = e^{beta_n}$. Then $alpha_n to log a$ , $beta_n to log b$ and



    $$ a_n = 1 + frac{alpha_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right), qquad b_n = 1 + frac{beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right). $$



    Therefore



    $$ (p a_n + q b_n)^n = left( 1 + frac{p alpha_n + q beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right) right)^n xrightarrow[ntoinfty]{} e^{p log a + q log b} = a^p b^q. $$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
      – user4201961
      Nov 13 at 10:14












    • @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
      – Paramanand Singh
      Nov 13 at 14:50











    Your Answer





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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    We use the following lemmas:




    Lemma 1: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a>0$. Then $n(a_n^{1/n}-1)tolog a$ (prove it).



    Lemma 2 : Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $n(a_n-1)to 0$. Then $a_n^nto 1$.




    Consider the sequence ${x_n} $ defined by $$x_n=frac{pa_n+qb_n} {a_n^pb_n^q} $$ and then we have $$n(x_n-1)=frac{n((a_n^{np}
    b_n^{nq}) ^{1/n}-1)-pn((a_n^n)^{1/n}-1)-qn((b_n^n)^{1/n}-1)}{a_n^pb_n^q}$$
    By lemma $1$ numerator of the above expression tends to $$log(a^pb^q) - plog a-qlog b=0$$ and since $a_nto 1,b_nto 1$ (prove this) the denominator tends to $1$ so that $n(x_n-1)to 0$. Thus by lemma 2 the sequence $x_n^nto 1$ and thus the desired limit is equal to $a^pb^q$.





    Alternatively we can use lemma 1 and the following




    Lemma 3: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a$ then $$left(1+frac{a_n}{n}right)^nto e^a$$




    We can write $$pa_n+qb_n=1+frac{x_n}{n}$$ where $$x_n=pn((a_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)+qn((b_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)$$ and by lemma 1 $$x_nto plog a+qlog b=log(a^pb^q) $$ and therefore by lemma 3 we have $$(pa_n+qb_n)^n=left(1+frac{x_n}{n}right)^nto exp(log(a^pb^q)) =a^pb^q$$






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      We use the following lemmas:




      Lemma 1: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a>0$. Then $n(a_n^{1/n}-1)tolog a$ (prove it).



      Lemma 2 : Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $n(a_n-1)to 0$. Then $a_n^nto 1$.




      Consider the sequence ${x_n} $ defined by $$x_n=frac{pa_n+qb_n} {a_n^pb_n^q} $$ and then we have $$n(x_n-1)=frac{n((a_n^{np}
      b_n^{nq}) ^{1/n}-1)-pn((a_n^n)^{1/n}-1)-qn((b_n^n)^{1/n}-1)}{a_n^pb_n^q}$$
      By lemma $1$ numerator of the above expression tends to $$log(a^pb^q) - plog a-qlog b=0$$ and since $a_nto 1,b_nto 1$ (prove this) the denominator tends to $1$ so that $n(x_n-1)to 0$. Thus by lemma 2 the sequence $x_n^nto 1$ and thus the desired limit is equal to $a^pb^q$.





      Alternatively we can use lemma 1 and the following




      Lemma 3: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a$ then $$left(1+frac{a_n}{n}right)^nto e^a$$




      We can write $$pa_n+qb_n=1+frac{x_n}{n}$$ where $$x_n=pn((a_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)+qn((b_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)$$ and by lemma 1 $$x_nto plog a+qlog b=log(a^pb^q) $$ and therefore by lemma 3 we have $$(pa_n+qb_n)^n=left(1+frac{x_n}{n}right)^nto exp(log(a^pb^q)) =a^pb^q$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        We use the following lemmas:




        Lemma 1: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a>0$. Then $n(a_n^{1/n}-1)tolog a$ (prove it).



        Lemma 2 : Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $n(a_n-1)to 0$. Then $a_n^nto 1$.




        Consider the sequence ${x_n} $ defined by $$x_n=frac{pa_n+qb_n} {a_n^pb_n^q} $$ and then we have $$n(x_n-1)=frac{n((a_n^{np}
        b_n^{nq}) ^{1/n}-1)-pn((a_n^n)^{1/n}-1)-qn((b_n^n)^{1/n}-1)}{a_n^pb_n^q}$$
        By lemma $1$ numerator of the above expression tends to $$log(a^pb^q) - plog a-qlog b=0$$ and since $a_nto 1,b_nto 1$ (prove this) the denominator tends to $1$ so that $n(x_n-1)to 0$. Thus by lemma 2 the sequence $x_n^nto 1$ and thus the desired limit is equal to $a^pb^q$.





        Alternatively we can use lemma 1 and the following




        Lemma 3: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a$ then $$left(1+frac{a_n}{n}right)^nto e^a$$




        We can write $$pa_n+qb_n=1+frac{x_n}{n}$$ where $$x_n=pn((a_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)+qn((b_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)$$ and by lemma 1 $$x_nto plog a+qlog b=log(a^pb^q) $$ and therefore by lemma 3 we have $$(pa_n+qb_n)^n=left(1+frac{x_n}{n}right)^nto exp(log(a^pb^q)) =a^pb^q$$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        We use the following lemmas:




        Lemma 1: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a>0$. Then $n(a_n^{1/n}-1)tolog a$ (prove it).



        Lemma 2 : Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $n(a_n-1)to 0$. Then $a_n^nto 1$.




        Consider the sequence ${x_n} $ defined by $$x_n=frac{pa_n+qb_n} {a_n^pb_n^q} $$ and then we have $$n(x_n-1)=frac{n((a_n^{np}
        b_n^{nq}) ^{1/n}-1)-pn((a_n^n)^{1/n}-1)-qn((b_n^n)^{1/n}-1)}{a_n^pb_n^q}$$
        By lemma $1$ numerator of the above expression tends to $$log(a^pb^q) - plog a-qlog b=0$$ and since $a_nto 1,b_nto 1$ (prove this) the denominator tends to $1$ so that $n(x_n-1)to 0$. Thus by lemma 2 the sequence $x_n^nto 1$ and thus the desired limit is equal to $a^pb^q$.





        Alternatively we can use lemma 1 and the following




        Lemma 3: Let ${a_n} $ be a sequence such that $a_nto a$ then $$left(1+frac{a_n}{n}right)^nto e^a$$




        We can write $$pa_n+qb_n=1+frac{x_n}{n}$$ where $$x_n=pn((a_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)+qn((b_n^{n})^{1/n}-1)$$ and by lemma 1 $$x_nto plog a+qlog b=log(a^pb^q) $$ and therefore by lemma 3 we have $$(pa_n+qb_n)^n=left(1+frac{x_n}{n}right)^nto exp(log(a^pb^q)) =a^pb^q$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 13 at 15:15

























        answered Nov 13 at 7:24









        Paramanand Singh

        48.1k555155




        48.1k555155






















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Write $a_n^n = e^{alpha_n}$ and $b_n^n = e^{beta_n}$. Then $alpha_n to log a$ , $beta_n to log b$ and



            $$ a_n = 1 + frac{alpha_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right), qquad b_n = 1 + frac{beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right). $$



            Therefore



            $$ (p a_n + q b_n)^n = left( 1 + frac{p alpha_n + q beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right) right)^n xrightarrow[ntoinfty]{} e^{p log a + q log b} = a^p b^q. $$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
              – user4201961
              Nov 13 at 10:14












            • @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 13 at 14:50















            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Write $a_n^n = e^{alpha_n}$ and $b_n^n = e^{beta_n}$. Then $alpha_n to log a$ , $beta_n to log b$ and



            $$ a_n = 1 + frac{alpha_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right), qquad b_n = 1 + frac{beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right). $$



            Therefore



            $$ (p a_n + q b_n)^n = left( 1 + frac{p alpha_n + q beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right) right)^n xrightarrow[ntoinfty]{} e^{p log a + q log b} = a^p b^q. $$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
              – user4201961
              Nov 13 at 10:14












            • @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 13 at 14:50













            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            Write $a_n^n = e^{alpha_n}$ and $b_n^n = e^{beta_n}$. Then $alpha_n to log a$ , $beta_n to log b$ and



            $$ a_n = 1 + frac{alpha_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right), qquad b_n = 1 + frac{beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right). $$



            Therefore



            $$ (p a_n + q b_n)^n = left( 1 + frac{p alpha_n + q beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right) right)^n xrightarrow[ntoinfty]{} e^{p log a + q log b} = a^p b^q. $$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Write $a_n^n = e^{alpha_n}$ and $b_n^n = e^{beta_n}$. Then $alpha_n to log a$ , $beta_n to log b$ and



            $$ a_n = 1 + frac{alpha_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right), qquad b_n = 1 + frac{beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right). $$



            Therefore



            $$ (p a_n + q b_n)^n = left( 1 + frac{p alpha_n + q beta_n}{n} + mathcal{O}left(frac{1}{n^2}right) right)^n xrightarrow[ntoinfty]{} e^{p log a + q log b} = a^p b^q. $$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 13 at 2:11









            Sangchul Lee

            89.7k12161262




            89.7k12161262












            • How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
              – user4201961
              Nov 13 at 10:14












            • @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 13 at 14:50


















            • How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
              – user4201961
              Nov 13 at 10:14












            • @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
              – Paramanand Singh
              Nov 13 at 14:50
















            How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
            – user4201961
            Nov 13 at 10:14






            How did you derive a formula for $a_n$ and $b_n$? Is there a way to do this, without asymptotics?
            – user4201961
            Nov 13 at 10:14














            @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
            – Paramanand Singh
            Nov 13 at 14:50




            @user4201961: this is nothing but Taylor series for $e^x$. Just note that $a_n=e^{alpha_n/n} $.
            – Paramanand Singh
            Nov 13 at 14:50


















             

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