What is the correct formalization of the statement: “Zero is the only neutral element in respect to...
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In my home work assignment I was asked to formalize different statements. One of them was (assuming that we are talking about whole numbers): "Zero is the only neutral element in respect to addition."
My way of formalizing it was:
$$forall_x left( x + 0 = x ; wedge ; forall_y left( (y + x = x) rightarrow y = 0 right) right) $$
I thought that to formalize it correctly I need to state, first of all, that zero is neutral element with respect to addition, and after that to state that zero is the only neutral element, by saying that for any other element, if it's neutral with respect to addition, that means that it is zero.
Today I get back my assignment and my TA marked this formalization as not correct, stated that my formalization is "stronger" that required, and provided the following formalization as the correct one:
$$forall_y forall_x left( (x + y = x) rightarrow (y = 0) right)$$
In my understanding this formalization means that for all $y$ if $y$ is neutral element with respect to addition then $y$ is zero, but in this formalization there is no statement about existence of zero as neutral element.
So my question is: What is the right formalization of the statement and if my way of formalization was wrong, please explain why it's not correct.
propositional-calculus predicate-logic
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In my home work assignment I was asked to formalize different statements. One of them was (assuming that we are talking about whole numbers): "Zero is the only neutral element in respect to addition."
My way of formalizing it was:
$$forall_x left( x + 0 = x ; wedge ; forall_y left( (y + x = x) rightarrow y = 0 right) right) $$
I thought that to formalize it correctly I need to state, first of all, that zero is neutral element with respect to addition, and after that to state that zero is the only neutral element, by saying that for any other element, if it's neutral with respect to addition, that means that it is zero.
Today I get back my assignment and my TA marked this formalization as not correct, stated that my formalization is "stronger" that required, and provided the following formalization as the correct one:
$$forall_y forall_x left( (x + y = x) rightarrow (y = 0) right)$$
In my understanding this formalization means that for all $y$ if $y$ is neutral element with respect to addition then $y$ is zero, but in this formalization there is no statement about existence of zero as neutral element.
So my question is: What is the right formalization of the statement and if my way of formalization was wrong, please explain why it's not correct.
propositional-calculus predicate-logic
New contributor
Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
In my home work assignment I was asked to formalize different statements. One of them was (assuming that we are talking about whole numbers): "Zero is the only neutral element in respect to addition."
My way of formalizing it was:
$$forall_x left( x + 0 = x ; wedge ; forall_y left( (y + x = x) rightarrow y = 0 right) right) $$
I thought that to formalize it correctly I need to state, first of all, that zero is neutral element with respect to addition, and after that to state that zero is the only neutral element, by saying that for any other element, if it's neutral with respect to addition, that means that it is zero.
Today I get back my assignment and my TA marked this formalization as not correct, stated that my formalization is "stronger" that required, and provided the following formalization as the correct one:
$$forall_y forall_x left( (x + y = x) rightarrow (y = 0) right)$$
In my understanding this formalization means that for all $y$ if $y$ is neutral element with respect to addition then $y$ is zero, but in this formalization there is no statement about existence of zero as neutral element.
So my question is: What is the right formalization of the statement and if my way of formalization was wrong, please explain why it's not correct.
propositional-calculus predicate-logic
New contributor
In my home work assignment I was asked to formalize different statements. One of them was (assuming that we are talking about whole numbers): "Zero is the only neutral element in respect to addition."
My way of formalizing it was:
$$forall_x left( x + 0 = x ; wedge ; forall_y left( (y + x = x) rightarrow y = 0 right) right) $$
I thought that to formalize it correctly I need to state, first of all, that zero is neutral element with respect to addition, and after that to state that zero is the only neutral element, by saying that for any other element, if it's neutral with respect to addition, that means that it is zero.
Today I get back my assignment and my TA marked this formalization as not correct, stated that my formalization is "stronger" that required, and provided the following formalization as the correct one:
$$forall_y forall_x left( (x + y = x) rightarrow (y = 0) right)$$
In my understanding this formalization means that for all $y$ if $y$ is neutral element with respect to addition then $y$ is zero, but in this formalization there is no statement about existence of zero as neutral element.
So my question is: What is the right formalization of the statement and if my way of formalization was wrong, please explain why it's not correct.
propositional-calculus predicate-logic
propositional-calculus predicate-logic
New contributor
New contributor
edited Nov 12 at 16:31
New contributor
asked Nov 12 at 16:26
Yegor Yegorov
162
162
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New contributor
Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35
add a comment |
Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35
Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35
Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
It depends on the logical interpretation of the English phrase "Zero is the only neutral element", and specifically the word "only". Does it mean precisely one, or does it mean at most one? Your interpretation gives the former, his interpretation gives the latter. Personally I prefer your interpretation, but this appears to be what the difference comes down to.
As a side note, I would add that I would consider both of your formalizations wrong. Consider for example the model $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$, where $+$ is defined the obvious way on $infty$: anything plus infinity equals infinity. In this case, I would still call 0 the only neutral element for addition: it is the only element that, when added to anything, gives back that same element. However, neither your nor your TA's sentence holds in this structure: instantiating either sentence with $x = y = infty$ shows that the sentences do not hold. I would consider a correct formalization to be
$$
forall x (x + 0 = x) land forall y(forall x (x + y = x) to y = 0).
$$
(Although even this may not be the right formalization if $+$ is not commutative....)
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
|
show 10 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
First, as others have pointed out, the use of 'only' in English is ambiguous.
Still, given that it says 'the only', I would very much give preference to your interpretation instead of your TA's interpretation.
Second, here is a more efficient way to formalize your interpretation:
$$forall x forall y (x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Finally, while this formalization will work just fine in practice when working with numbers, I have to agree with Mees that a technically more correct symbolization would be of the form:
$$forall y (y text{ is a neutral element for addition } leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
i.e.:
$$forall y (forall x x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Or, if one wants to get really pedantic:
$$forall y (forall x ( x + y = x land y + x = x) leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
It depends on the logical interpretation of the English phrase "Zero is the only neutral element", and specifically the word "only". Does it mean precisely one, or does it mean at most one? Your interpretation gives the former, his interpretation gives the latter. Personally I prefer your interpretation, but this appears to be what the difference comes down to.
As a side note, I would add that I would consider both of your formalizations wrong. Consider for example the model $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$, where $+$ is defined the obvious way on $infty$: anything plus infinity equals infinity. In this case, I would still call 0 the only neutral element for addition: it is the only element that, when added to anything, gives back that same element. However, neither your nor your TA's sentence holds in this structure: instantiating either sentence with $x = y = infty$ shows that the sentences do not hold. I would consider a correct formalization to be
$$
forall x (x + 0 = x) land forall y(forall x (x + y = x) to y = 0).
$$
(Although even this may not be the right formalization if $+$ is not commutative....)
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
|
show 10 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
It depends on the logical interpretation of the English phrase "Zero is the only neutral element", and specifically the word "only". Does it mean precisely one, or does it mean at most one? Your interpretation gives the former, his interpretation gives the latter. Personally I prefer your interpretation, but this appears to be what the difference comes down to.
As a side note, I would add that I would consider both of your formalizations wrong. Consider for example the model $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$, where $+$ is defined the obvious way on $infty$: anything plus infinity equals infinity. In this case, I would still call 0 the only neutral element for addition: it is the only element that, when added to anything, gives back that same element. However, neither your nor your TA's sentence holds in this structure: instantiating either sentence with $x = y = infty$ shows that the sentences do not hold. I would consider a correct formalization to be
$$
forall x (x + 0 = x) land forall y(forall x (x + y = x) to y = 0).
$$
(Although even this may not be the right formalization if $+$ is not commutative....)
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
|
show 10 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
up vote
4
down vote
It depends on the logical interpretation of the English phrase "Zero is the only neutral element", and specifically the word "only". Does it mean precisely one, or does it mean at most one? Your interpretation gives the former, his interpretation gives the latter. Personally I prefer your interpretation, but this appears to be what the difference comes down to.
As a side note, I would add that I would consider both of your formalizations wrong. Consider for example the model $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$, where $+$ is defined the obvious way on $infty$: anything plus infinity equals infinity. In this case, I would still call 0 the only neutral element for addition: it is the only element that, when added to anything, gives back that same element. However, neither your nor your TA's sentence holds in this structure: instantiating either sentence with $x = y = infty$ shows that the sentences do not hold. I would consider a correct formalization to be
$$
forall x (x + 0 = x) land forall y(forall x (x + y = x) to y = 0).
$$
(Although even this may not be the right formalization if $+$ is not commutative....)
It depends on the logical interpretation of the English phrase "Zero is the only neutral element", and specifically the word "only". Does it mean precisely one, or does it mean at most one? Your interpretation gives the former, his interpretation gives the latter. Personally I prefer your interpretation, but this appears to be what the difference comes down to.
As a side note, I would add that I would consider both of your formalizations wrong. Consider for example the model $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$, where $+$ is defined the obvious way on $infty$: anything plus infinity equals infinity. In this case, I would still call 0 the only neutral element for addition: it is the only element that, when added to anything, gives back that same element. However, neither your nor your TA's sentence holds in this structure: instantiating either sentence with $x = y = infty$ shows that the sentences do not hold. I would consider a correct formalization to be
$$
forall x (x + 0 = x) land forall y(forall x (x + y = x) to y = 0).
$$
(Although even this may not be the right formalization if $+$ is not commutative....)
edited Nov 12 at 16:50
answered Nov 12 at 16:40
Mees de Vries
16.3k12654
16.3k12654
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
|
show 10 more comments
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
Sorry - I just noted what you meant. At qa quick glance I had thought tat the only difference between the two statements was the part that $0$ is neutral
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:45
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
I don't see what interpretation of "neutral element" gives you $infty$ as a neutral element. On the contrary. It is a counter-neutral element. $x+y=x$ for all $y$, rather than $x+y=x$ for all $x$, in the case where $y$ is $0$.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:47
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
@AsafKaragila, yes, that is my point. OP's two sentences both fail in $(mathbb Z cup {infty}, +, 0)$ despite the fact that I would say "0 is the only neutral element" is true in this structure.
– Mees de Vries
Nov 12 at 16:50
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
I also don't understand your "correct" formulation. Since $forall$ distributes over $land$, this is the same as $forall xforall yforall x(x+0=xland(x+y=xrightarrow y=0))$. So you just quantify over $x$ twice. Yes, it is "strict" to the natural language formalization which is "completely unambiguous", but it is not significantly different from the OPs.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 16:52
1
1
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
Mees, no, you're over-reading my point. When I say "write a sentence that states that $0$ is the only neutral element", what I am really asking is to write a sentence that defines $0$ in the structure $(Bbb Z,+)$ through that property. Again, implicit understanding plays a significant role in learning. Over-insistence on formalization obscures understanding; and over-pedantry inhibit growths.
– Asaf Karagila♦
Nov 12 at 17:42
|
show 10 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
First, as others have pointed out, the use of 'only' in English is ambiguous.
Still, given that it says 'the only', I would very much give preference to your interpretation instead of your TA's interpretation.
Second, here is a more efficient way to formalize your interpretation:
$$forall x forall y (x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Finally, while this formalization will work just fine in practice when working with numbers, I have to agree with Mees that a technically more correct symbolization would be of the form:
$$forall y (y text{ is a neutral element for addition } leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
i.e.:
$$forall y (forall x x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Or, if one wants to get really pedantic:
$$forall y (forall x ( x + y = x land y + x = x) leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
First, as others have pointed out, the use of 'only' in English is ambiguous.
Still, given that it says 'the only', I would very much give preference to your interpretation instead of your TA's interpretation.
Second, here is a more efficient way to formalize your interpretation:
$$forall x forall y (x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Finally, while this formalization will work just fine in practice when working with numbers, I have to agree with Mees that a technically more correct symbolization would be of the form:
$$forall y (y text{ is a neutral element for addition } leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
i.e.:
$$forall y (forall x x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Or, if one wants to get really pedantic:
$$forall y (forall x ( x + y = x land y + x = x) leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
First, as others have pointed out, the use of 'only' in English is ambiguous.
Still, given that it says 'the only', I would very much give preference to your interpretation instead of your TA's interpretation.
Second, here is a more efficient way to formalize your interpretation:
$$forall x forall y (x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Finally, while this formalization will work just fine in practice when working with numbers, I have to agree with Mees that a technically more correct symbolization would be of the form:
$$forall y (y text{ is a neutral element for addition } leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
i.e.:
$$forall y (forall x x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Or, if one wants to get really pedantic:
$$forall y (forall x ( x + y = x land y + x = x) leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
First, as others have pointed out, the use of 'only' in English is ambiguous.
Still, given that it says 'the only', I would very much give preference to your interpretation instead of your TA's interpretation.
Second, here is a more efficient way to formalize your interpretation:
$$forall x forall y (x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Finally, while this formalization will work just fine in practice when working with numbers, I have to agree with Mees that a technically more correct symbolization would be of the form:
$$forall y (y text{ is a neutral element for addition } leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
i.e.:
$$forall y (forall x x + y = x leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
Or, if one wants to get really pedantic:
$$forall y (forall x ( x + y = x land y + x = x) leftrightarrow y = 0)$$
answered 2 days ago
Bram28
57.9k44185
57.9k44185
add a comment |
add a comment |
Yegor Yegorov is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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Your TA is correct if they would consider the statement "$12$ is the only perfect square prime number" true. -- They may have a point (but remember that points are small by definition) though because in "$x$ is neutral if and only if $x=0$", we consider the "if" and the "only if" to stand for the two directions of implication. Then again, this is "only if", not "only". -- The main problem is of course that natural language is not formal so that the discussion of the meaning (or possibly meanings) is first a task for linguists ...
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 12 at 16:35