Prove that we can't find effective bounds on the point guaranteed by the Mean Value Theorem.











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I wish to show that we cannot find effective bounds on the point that the Mean Value Theorem proves to exist. To prove this loose statement, I aimed at the slightly more specific claim:




For each real number $M$ and each real number $xi$ that lies strictly between $0$ and $1$, construct a function $f$ such that
$$f(0)=0,; f(1)=M,;ftext{ is continuous on }[0,1],; ftext{ is differentiable on }(0,1),;text{ and }xitext{ is the unique point strictly between 0 and 1 such that};f'(xi)=M,.$$




For the $Mneq 0$ and $xineq 1/e$ case, we can show that
$$g(x)=begin{cases}
0&text{ if }x=0,\
1/e&text{ if }x=1\
1&text{ if }x=infty,\
sqrt[1-x]{x}&text{ otherwise}
end{cases}$$



is strictly increasing and continuous on $[0,infty]$. Thus there is a unique positive $alpha$ such that $g(alpha)=xi$. In turn, we can define $f(x)=Mx^alpha$ which will satisfy the claim. For the $Mneq 0$ and $xi=1/e$ case, take the obvious continuous extension of $f(x)=M(x+xln(x))$.



For $M=0$, we first choose $alphageq 1$ and $betageq 1$ such that $frac{alpha}{alpha+beta}=xi$. We then define $f(x)=x^alpha(1-x)^beta$ which will satisfy the claim.



My question however is this:




Can we construct such an $f$ to be a polynomial?




An existential proof isn't desirable here, as I hope to use this family of polynomials as examples. It'd be useful to prove the uniqueness of $xi$ through calculation (but possibly an appeal to monotonicity and the Intermediate Value Theorem).










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  • 3




    Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
    – Connor Harris
    Oct 30 at 21:09












  • @ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Oct 30 at 23:16










  • One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 3:32










  • @RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 7:29















up vote
9
down vote

favorite
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I wish to show that we cannot find effective bounds on the point that the Mean Value Theorem proves to exist. To prove this loose statement, I aimed at the slightly more specific claim:




For each real number $M$ and each real number $xi$ that lies strictly between $0$ and $1$, construct a function $f$ such that
$$f(0)=0,; f(1)=M,;ftext{ is continuous on }[0,1],; ftext{ is differentiable on }(0,1),;text{ and }xitext{ is the unique point strictly between 0 and 1 such that};f'(xi)=M,.$$




For the $Mneq 0$ and $xineq 1/e$ case, we can show that
$$g(x)=begin{cases}
0&text{ if }x=0,\
1/e&text{ if }x=1\
1&text{ if }x=infty,\
sqrt[1-x]{x}&text{ otherwise}
end{cases}$$



is strictly increasing and continuous on $[0,infty]$. Thus there is a unique positive $alpha$ such that $g(alpha)=xi$. In turn, we can define $f(x)=Mx^alpha$ which will satisfy the claim. For the $Mneq 0$ and $xi=1/e$ case, take the obvious continuous extension of $f(x)=M(x+xln(x))$.



For $M=0$, we first choose $alphageq 1$ and $betageq 1$ such that $frac{alpha}{alpha+beta}=xi$. We then define $f(x)=x^alpha(1-x)^beta$ which will satisfy the claim.



My question however is this:




Can we construct such an $f$ to be a polynomial?




An existential proof isn't desirable here, as I hope to use this family of polynomials as examples. It'd be useful to prove the uniqueness of $xi$ through calculation (but possibly an appeal to monotonicity and the Intermediate Value Theorem).










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  • 3




    Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
    – Connor Harris
    Oct 30 at 21:09












  • @ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Oct 30 at 23:16










  • One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 3:32










  • @RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 7:29













up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4









up vote
9
down vote

favorite
4






4





I wish to show that we cannot find effective bounds on the point that the Mean Value Theorem proves to exist. To prove this loose statement, I aimed at the slightly more specific claim:




For each real number $M$ and each real number $xi$ that lies strictly between $0$ and $1$, construct a function $f$ such that
$$f(0)=0,; f(1)=M,;ftext{ is continuous on }[0,1],; ftext{ is differentiable on }(0,1),;text{ and }xitext{ is the unique point strictly between 0 and 1 such that};f'(xi)=M,.$$




For the $Mneq 0$ and $xineq 1/e$ case, we can show that
$$g(x)=begin{cases}
0&text{ if }x=0,\
1/e&text{ if }x=1\
1&text{ if }x=infty,\
sqrt[1-x]{x}&text{ otherwise}
end{cases}$$



is strictly increasing and continuous on $[0,infty]$. Thus there is a unique positive $alpha$ such that $g(alpha)=xi$. In turn, we can define $f(x)=Mx^alpha$ which will satisfy the claim. For the $Mneq 0$ and $xi=1/e$ case, take the obvious continuous extension of $f(x)=M(x+xln(x))$.



For $M=0$, we first choose $alphageq 1$ and $betageq 1$ such that $frac{alpha}{alpha+beta}=xi$. We then define $f(x)=x^alpha(1-x)^beta$ which will satisfy the claim.



My question however is this:




Can we construct such an $f$ to be a polynomial?




An existential proof isn't desirable here, as I hope to use this family of polynomials as examples. It'd be useful to prove the uniqueness of $xi$ through calculation (but possibly an appeal to monotonicity and the Intermediate Value Theorem).










share|cite|improve this question















I wish to show that we cannot find effective bounds on the point that the Mean Value Theorem proves to exist. To prove this loose statement, I aimed at the slightly more specific claim:




For each real number $M$ and each real number $xi$ that lies strictly between $0$ and $1$, construct a function $f$ such that
$$f(0)=0,; f(1)=M,;ftext{ is continuous on }[0,1],; ftext{ is differentiable on }(0,1),;text{ and }xitext{ is the unique point strictly between 0 and 1 such that};f'(xi)=M,.$$




For the $Mneq 0$ and $xineq 1/e$ case, we can show that
$$g(x)=begin{cases}
0&text{ if }x=0,\
1/e&text{ if }x=1\
1&text{ if }x=infty,\
sqrt[1-x]{x}&text{ otherwise}
end{cases}$$



is strictly increasing and continuous on $[0,infty]$. Thus there is a unique positive $alpha$ such that $g(alpha)=xi$. In turn, we can define $f(x)=Mx^alpha$ which will satisfy the claim. For the $Mneq 0$ and $xi=1/e$ case, take the obvious continuous extension of $f(x)=M(x+xln(x))$.



For $M=0$, we first choose $alphageq 1$ and $betageq 1$ such that $frac{alpha}{alpha+beta}=xi$. We then define $f(x)=x^alpha(1-x)^beta$ which will satisfy the claim.



My question however is this:




Can we construct such an $f$ to be a polynomial?




An existential proof isn't desirable here, as I hope to use this family of polynomials as examples. It'd be useful to prove the uniqueness of $xi$ through calculation (but possibly an appeal to monotonicity and the Intermediate Value Theorem).







calculus real-analysis polynomials






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edited Oct 31 at 15:16

























asked Oct 30 at 20:29









Robert Wolfe

5,64222362




5,64222362








  • 3




    Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
    – Connor Harris
    Oct 30 at 21:09












  • @ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Oct 30 at 23:16










  • One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 3:32










  • @RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 7:29














  • 3




    Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
    – Connor Harris
    Oct 30 at 21:09












  • @ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Oct 30 at 23:16










  • One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 3:32










  • @RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 7:29








3




3




Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
– Connor Harris
Oct 30 at 21:09






Quick idea: consider $f(x) = Mx + p(x)$ where $p(x)$ is a polynomial constructed to satisfy $p(0) = p(1) = 0$, $(forall 0 leq 1 leq x) p''(x) < 0$, and $p'(xi) = 0$ for some arbitrary (unique by construction) $xi$. This should be possible with quartics: it boils down to just solving an underdetermined system on the coefficients of $p$.
– Connor Harris
Oct 30 at 21:09














@ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
– Robert Wolfe
Oct 30 at 23:16




@ConnorHarris that seems feasible. The algebra is a little bit of a pain though. A solution would be quite slick though.
– Robert Wolfe
Oct 30 at 23:16












One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 3:32




One third of a solution: for $1/3leq xi<1/2$ we may use $Mx+x(x-1)(x-c_1)$ and for $1/2<xileq 2/3$ we may use $Mx-x(x-1)(x+c_2)$ where $$c_1=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{2xi-1};text{ and };c_2=frac{xi(3xi-2)}{1-2xi},.$$ For $xi=1/2$ we can get away with $x(1-x)$. But cubics don't seem to carry us the entire way.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 3:32












@RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 7:29




@RobertWolfe I didn't think about the comments before posting an answer. But now that I am seeing them, the $(xpm c)$ in your "cubic" comment is like the $(x+t)$ in my answer, except that I extended to considering $(x+t)^n$ to get past the central third.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 7:29










3 Answers
3






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First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.



Below is a proof that if you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



If $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



For example, with $xi=frac{e}{pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=frac{8(e/pi)^2-7(e/pi)}{-2(e/pi)+1}approx0.09233ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $frac{e}{pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.



Explanation



Assume $xi>frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $ninmathbb{N}$ and $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$. Then $$
begin{align}
g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)xbig)\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+tbig)\
end{align}
$$

The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=frac{Apm B}{C}$$
Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $ninmathbb{N}$, $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $xi$ and $n$.



$$begin{align}
xi&=frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\
-2(n+2)xi&=-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\
-2(n+2)xi+n+1-2t&=pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}
end{align}$$

Squaring both sides:
$$begin{align}
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+2]\
4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi&=4t(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)\
end{align}$$

$$begin{align}
t&=frac{4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi}{4(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)}\
&=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}
end{align}$$

We have assumed $xi>frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen?
$$begin{align}
(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi&<0\
n(xi^2-xi)&<xi-2xi^2\
n(xi-1)&<1-2xi\
n&>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}
end{align}$$

So yes. If you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



And restating from the introduction, if $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $xi<frac{1}{2}$.)






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  • I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:02










  • You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 21:16










  • yeah. a small detail.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:29










  • it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:37












  • This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:26




















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+50










Just a few words on solving the nonpolynomial problem: First take $M=0.$ Then $f(x)=x(1-x)$ is a solution for $xi=1/2.$ For other values of $xiin (0,1),$ we look at $g_p(x)=f(x^p)$ for $p>0.$ We have $g_p'(x)=px^{p-1}f'(x^p)=0$ iff $x=(1/2)^{1/p}.$ Thus if $xi$ is given, we take $p=ln(1/2)/ln xi,$ and $g_p$ solves the problem. Finally, if $Mne 0$ and $xi$ is given, we take the same $p$ and the function $M(x+g_p(x))$ solves the problem.



On to polynomial solutions: WLOG $M=0$, for we can use the same idea as above for $Mne 0.$



Let $f(x)=x(1-x)$ as above. If $p$ is a polynomial with $p(0)=0,$ $p(1)=1$ and $p'>0$ on $(0,1),$ then $fcirc p$ is a polynomial that solves the problem for for the unique value $xi in(0,1)$ such that $p(xi)=1/2.$



For $0le b le 1,$ set $p_b(x)=(1-b)x^2 +bx.$ Then $p_b(0)=0,p_b(1)=1,$ and $p_b'>0$ on $(0,1).$ Consider the equation $p_b(x)-1/2=0.$ If $b=1,$ then $x=1/2$ is a solution. For $bin [0,1)$ we have a quadratic equation whose solution in $[0,1]$ is



$$x= frac{(b^2+2(1-b))^{1/2}-b}{2(1-b)}.$$



Verify the right side, as a function of $b,$ strictly decreases on $[0,1)$ from $1/2^{1/2}$ to $1/2.$ Thus for $xiin [1/2,1/2^{1/2}],$ there is a unique $b_{xi}in [0,1]$ such that $p_{b_{xi}}(xi)=1/2.$ Verify that $b_{xi}$ is given by the formula



$$b_{xi} = frac{1/2-xi^2}{xi(1-xi)}.$$



So we've solved the problem for $xiin[1/2,1/2^{1/2}].$ But we've also solved it for $xiin [1/2^{1/2},1/2^{1/4}].$ Just check that that for such $xi,$ $fcirc p_{b_{xi^2}}(x^2)$ does the job. We can keep moving to the right with such intervals and their solutions. We thus obtain solutions for all $xiin [1/2,1).$



What about $xiin (0,1/2]?$ That's easy, now that we've handled the other side. Just check that if $g$ is a solution for $xiin [1/2,1),$ then $1-g(1-x)$ is a solution for $1-xi.$






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  • That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:42










  • +1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:58




















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Robert's comment about cubics is the best we can do.




Proposition: If $f$ is a polynomial of degree at most $3$ that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has exactly one value $xi in (0, 1)$ for which $f'(xi) = 0$, then $frac{1}{3} leq xi leq frac{2}{3}$.




Proof: Let $f$ have the following form: $$f(x) = x^3 + kx^2 - (1+k) x.$$ (We'll ignore for now the case $xi = frac{1}{2}$, which requires a quadratic; it's trivial to see that for no other value of $xi$ is a quadratic possible.) This is fully general, as wlog we can scale the coefficients of some possible solution $f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx$ (which must satisfy $a + b + c = 0$) without breaking any condition on $f$. The solutions to $f'(xi) = 3xi^2 + 2k xi - (1+k) = 0$ are thus $$xi = frac{k pm sqrt{k^2 + 3k + 3}}{3}.$$



This can be solved for $k$ by rearranging and squaring to get $(3 xi - k)^2 = k^2 + 3k + 3$, or $$k = frac{1 - 3 xi^2}{2 xi - 1}$$ but the squaring means that $xi$ could be either the upper or the lower solution for any given $k$. Regardless, we know that the fully general formula for a cubic that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has a not necessarily unique stationary point at $xi$, up to scaling of the coefficients, is $$f(x) = (2 xi - 1) x^3 + (1 - 3 xi^2) x^2 + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) x.$$



We now just need to see which of these cubics have two stationary points in $(0, 1)$. By the Vieta formulas, the solutions to $f'(x) = 3(2 xi - 1) x^2 + 2(1 - 3 xi^2) x + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) = 0$ add up to $frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)}.$ If $xi$ is one solution, then the other solution (call it $xi'$) is begin{align*} xi' &= frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)} - xi \ &= frac{6 xi^2 - 2}{6 xi - 3} - frac{6 xi^2 - 3 xi}{6 xi - 3} \ &= frac{3 xi - 2}{6 xi -3} \
&= frac{3 xi - frac{3}{2}}{6 xi - 3} - frac{frac{1}{2}}{6 xi - 3} \
&= frac{1}{2} - frac{1}{12xi - 6}.end{align*}

Thus, $xi' notin (0, 1)$ if and only if $|12 xi - 6| leq 2$, i.e., if $frac{1}{3} leqxi leq frac{2}{3}.$






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 5 at 3:46











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up vote
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First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.



Below is a proof that if you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



If $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



For example, with $xi=frac{e}{pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=frac{8(e/pi)^2-7(e/pi)}{-2(e/pi)+1}approx0.09233ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $frac{e}{pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.



Explanation



Assume $xi>frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $ninmathbb{N}$ and $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$. Then $$
begin{align}
g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)xbig)\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+tbig)\
end{align}
$$

The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=frac{Apm B}{C}$$
Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $ninmathbb{N}$, $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $xi$ and $n$.



$$begin{align}
xi&=frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\
-2(n+2)xi&=-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\
-2(n+2)xi+n+1-2t&=pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}
end{align}$$

Squaring both sides:
$$begin{align}
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+2]\
4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi&=4t(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)\
end{align}$$

$$begin{align}
t&=frac{4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi}{4(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)}\
&=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}
end{align}$$

We have assumed $xi>frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen?
$$begin{align}
(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi&<0\
n(xi^2-xi)&<xi-2xi^2\
n(xi-1)&<1-2xi\
n&>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}
end{align}$$

So yes. If you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



And restating from the introduction, if $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $xi<frac{1}{2}$.)






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:02










  • You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 21:16










  • yeah. a small detail.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:29










  • it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:37












  • This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:26

















up vote
5
down vote



accepted










First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.



Below is a proof that if you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



If $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



For example, with $xi=frac{e}{pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=frac{8(e/pi)^2-7(e/pi)}{-2(e/pi)+1}approx0.09233ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $frac{e}{pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.



Explanation



Assume $xi>frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $ninmathbb{N}$ and $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$. Then $$
begin{align}
g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)xbig)\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+tbig)\
end{align}
$$

The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=frac{Apm B}{C}$$
Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $ninmathbb{N}$, $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $xi$ and $n$.



$$begin{align}
xi&=frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\
-2(n+2)xi&=-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\
-2(n+2)xi+n+1-2t&=pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}
end{align}$$

Squaring both sides:
$$begin{align}
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+2]\
4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi&=4t(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)\
end{align}$$

$$begin{align}
t&=frac{4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi}{4(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)}\
&=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}
end{align}$$

We have assumed $xi>frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen?
$$begin{align}
(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi&<0\
n(xi^2-xi)&<xi-2xi^2\
n(xi-1)&<1-2xi\
n&>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}
end{align}$$

So yes. If you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



And restating from the introduction, if $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $xi<frac{1}{2}$.)






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:02










  • You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 21:16










  • yeah. a small detail.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:29










  • it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:37












  • This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:26















up vote
5
down vote



accepted







up vote
5
down vote



accepted






First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.



Below is a proof that if you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



If $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



For example, with $xi=frac{e}{pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=frac{8(e/pi)^2-7(e/pi)}{-2(e/pi)+1}approx0.09233ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $frac{e}{pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.



Explanation



Assume $xi>frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $ninmathbb{N}$ and $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$. Then $$
begin{align}
g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)xbig)\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+tbig)\
end{align}
$$

The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=frac{Apm B}{C}$$
Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $ninmathbb{N}$, $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $xi$ and $n$.



$$begin{align}
xi&=frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\
-2(n+2)xi&=-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\
-2(n+2)xi+n+1-2t&=pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}
end{align}$$

Squaring both sides:
$$begin{align}
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+2]\
4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi&=4t(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)\
end{align}$$

$$begin{align}
t&=frac{4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi}{4(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)}\
&=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}
end{align}$$

We have assumed $xi>frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen?
$$begin{align}
(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi&<0\
n(xi^2-xi)&<xi-2xi^2\
n(xi-1)&<1-2xi\
n&>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}
end{align}$$

So yes. If you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



And restating from the introduction, if $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $xi<frac{1}{2}$.)






share|cite|improve this answer














First, imagine $f$ is some such polynomial for $xi$. Then let $g(x)=f(x)-Mx$. We have $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and $xi$ is the unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$. So allow me to replace the problem as written with the Mean Value Theorem to one about Rolle's Theorem.



Below is a proof that if you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



If $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction with $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



For example, with $xi=frac{e}{pi}$, we can take $n=6$, and $t=frac{8(e/pi)^2-7(e/pi)}{-2(e/pi)+1}approx0.09233ldots$. Then $g(x)=(x+t)^6x(1-x)$ is such that $g'$ has only one zero in $(0,1)$, and it is located at $frac{e}{pi}$. See this demonstrated at WolframAlpha.



Explanation



Assume $xi>frac{1}{2}$. Consider $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ for $ninmathbb{N}$ and $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$. Then $$
begin{align}
g'(x)&=n(x+t)^{n-1}x(1-x)+(x+t)^n(1-x)-(x+t)^nx\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(nx(1-x)+(x+t)(1-x)-(x+t)xbig)\
&=(x+t)^{n-1}big(x^2(-n-2)+x(n+1-2t)+tbig)\
end{align}
$$

The zeros of $g'$ are $-t$ (which is not in $(0,1)$) and $$frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}=frac{Apm B}{C}$$
Since $n,t>0$, it follows that $|B|>|A|$. It follows that one of these two roots is negative (so not in $(0,1)$) and the other is positive. So if the positive root is equal to $xi$, then $g$ satisfies the Rolle's version of the proposition. We have freedom to choose $ninmathbb{N}$, $tinmathbb{R}_{gt0}$, so maybe we can choose them well. In the following, we attempt to solve for $t$ in terms of $xi$ and $n$.



$$begin{align}
xi&=frac{-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}}{-2(n+2)}\
-2(n+2)xi&=-(n+1-2t)pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}\
-2(n+2)xi+n+1-2t&=pmsqrt{(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t}
end{align}$$

Squaring both sides:
$$begin{align}
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1-2t)^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]+4t^2&=(n+1)^2-4(n+1)t+4t^2+4(n+2)t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]&=(n+1)^2+4t\
[-2(n+2)xi+n+1]^2-(n+1)^2&=4t[-2(n+2)xi+n+2]\
4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi&=4t(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)\
end{align}$$

$$begin{align}
t&=frac{4(n+2)^2xi^2-4(n+2)(n+1)xi}{4(-2(n+2)xi+n+2)}\
&=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}
end{align}$$

We have assumed $xi>frac{1}{2}$, so the denominator is negative. We need $t$ to be positive, so we need the numerator to be negative. Can we choose $n$ to make that happen?
$$begin{align}
(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi&<0\
n(xi^2-xi)&<xi-2xi^2\
n(xi-1)&<1-2xi\
n&>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}
end{align}$$

So yes. If you have $xi>frac{1}{2}$, take some integer $n>frac{1-2xi}{xi-1}$, and then take $t=frac{(n+2)xi^2-(n+1)xi}{-2xi+1}$. Then the polynomial $g(x)=(x+t)^nx(1-x)$ satisfies $g(0)=g(1)=0$, and there is a unique number in $(0,1)$ where $g'(x)=0$, and that number is $xi$.



And restating from the introduction, if $xi<frac{1}{2}$, there is a symmetric construction where $t<-1$. And if $xi=frac{1}{2}$, just take $g(x)=x(1-x)$.



This approach was motivated by starting with $x(1-x)$, and then multiplying by some power of $(x+t)$ that would "warp" the parabola in between $0$ and $1$ without making it wiggle. Something that would stretch $x(1-x)$ vertically, but moreso on the right side than the left side, to push the extremum farther to the right. (Or the other way when $xi<frac{1}{2}$.)







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 3 at 6:07

























answered Nov 2 at 7:12









alex.jordan

38.4k560119




38.4k560119












  • I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:02










  • You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 21:16










  • yeah. a small detail.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:29










  • it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:37












  • This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:26




















  • I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:02










  • You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 21:16










  • yeah. a small detail.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:29










  • it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:37












  • This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:26


















I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:02




I'm glad to see that my partial answer generalized in some way. Thanks! I'm still slightly interested to see if someone can post an answer without some case analysis.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:02












You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 21:16




You're welcome, thanks for a question that I found interesting. By case analysis, do you mean $xi>1/2$ versus $xi<1/2$ versus $xi=1/2$?
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 21:16












yeah. a small detail.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:29




yeah. a small detail.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:29












it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:37






it seems that zhw's $(xmapsto 1-x)$ substitution trick could be applied though. that barely qualifies as a case analysis now.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:37














This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 22:26






This is what I meant too, but I could have been more explicit. Applying that reflection effectively turns $t$ in $(0,infty)$ into $tilde{t}$ in $(-infty,-1)$. (Except the whole function is also scaled by $(-1)^n$.) This is where the "$t<-1$" clause came from in the "case" where $xi<1/2$.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 22:26












up vote
2
down vote



+50










Just a few words on solving the nonpolynomial problem: First take $M=0.$ Then $f(x)=x(1-x)$ is a solution for $xi=1/2.$ For other values of $xiin (0,1),$ we look at $g_p(x)=f(x^p)$ for $p>0.$ We have $g_p'(x)=px^{p-1}f'(x^p)=0$ iff $x=(1/2)^{1/p}.$ Thus if $xi$ is given, we take $p=ln(1/2)/ln xi,$ and $g_p$ solves the problem. Finally, if $Mne 0$ and $xi$ is given, we take the same $p$ and the function $M(x+g_p(x))$ solves the problem.



On to polynomial solutions: WLOG $M=0$, for we can use the same idea as above for $Mne 0.$



Let $f(x)=x(1-x)$ as above. If $p$ is a polynomial with $p(0)=0,$ $p(1)=1$ and $p'>0$ on $(0,1),$ then $fcirc p$ is a polynomial that solves the problem for for the unique value $xi in(0,1)$ such that $p(xi)=1/2.$



For $0le b le 1,$ set $p_b(x)=(1-b)x^2 +bx.$ Then $p_b(0)=0,p_b(1)=1,$ and $p_b'>0$ on $(0,1).$ Consider the equation $p_b(x)-1/2=0.$ If $b=1,$ then $x=1/2$ is a solution. For $bin [0,1)$ we have a quadratic equation whose solution in $[0,1]$ is



$$x= frac{(b^2+2(1-b))^{1/2}-b}{2(1-b)}.$$



Verify the right side, as a function of $b,$ strictly decreases on $[0,1)$ from $1/2^{1/2}$ to $1/2.$ Thus for $xiin [1/2,1/2^{1/2}],$ there is a unique $b_{xi}in [0,1]$ such that $p_{b_{xi}}(xi)=1/2.$ Verify that $b_{xi}$ is given by the formula



$$b_{xi} = frac{1/2-xi^2}{xi(1-xi)}.$$



So we've solved the problem for $xiin[1/2,1/2^{1/2}].$ But we've also solved it for $xiin [1/2^{1/2},1/2^{1/4}].$ Just check that that for such $xi,$ $fcirc p_{b_{xi^2}}(x^2)$ does the job. We can keep moving to the right with such intervals and their solutions. We thus obtain solutions for all $xiin [1/2,1).$



What about $xiin (0,1/2]?$ That's easy, now that we've handled the other side. Just check that if $g$ is a solution for $xiin [1/2,1),$ then $1-g(1-x)$ is a solution for $1-xi.$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:42










  • +1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:58

















up vote
2
down vote



+50










Just a few words on solving the nonpolynomial problem: First take $M=0.$ Then $f(x)=x(1-x)$ is a solution for $xi=1/2.$ For other values of $xiin (0,1),$ we look at $g_p(x)=f(x^p)$ for $p>0.$ We have $g_p'(x)=px^{p-1}f'(x^p)=0$ iff $x=(1/2)^{1/p}.$ Thus if $xi$ is given, we take $p=ln(1/2)/ln xi,$ and $g_p$ solves the problem. Finally, if $Mne 0$ and $xi$ is given, we take the same $p$ and the function $M(x+g_p(x))$ solves the problem.



On to polynomial solutions: WLOG $M=0$, for we can use the same idea as above for $Mne 0.$



Let $f(x)=x(1-x)$ as above. If $p$ is a polynomial with $p(0)=0,$ $p(1)=1$ and $p'>0$ on $(0,1),$ then $fcirc p$ is a polynomial that solves the problem for for the unique value $xi in(0,1)$ such that $p(xi)=1/2.$



For $0le b le 1,$ set $p_b(x)=(1-b)x^2 +bx.$ Then $p_b(0)=0,p_b(1)=1,$ and $p_b'>0$ on $(0,1).$ Consider the equation $p_b(x)-1/2=0.$ If $b=1,$ then $x=1/2$ is a solution. For $bin [0,1)$ we have a quadratic equation whose solution in $[0,1]$ is



$$x= frac{(b^2+2(1-b))^{1/2}-b}{2(1-b)}.$$



Verify the right side, as a function of $b,$ strictly decreases on $[0,1)$ from $1/2^{1/2}$ to $1/2.$ Thus for $xiin [1/2,1/2^{1/2}],$ there is a unique $b_{xi}in [0,1]$ such that $p_{b_{xi}}(xi)=1/2.$ Verify that $b_{xi}$ is given by the formula



$$b_{xi} = frac{1/2-xi^2}{xi(1-xi)}.$$



So we've solved the problem for $xiin[1/2,1/2^{1/2}].$ But we've also solved it for $xiin [1/2^{1/2},1/2^{1/4}].$ Just check that that for such $xi,$ $fcirc p_{b_{xi^2}}(x^2)$ does the job. We can keep moving to the right with such intervals and their solutions. We thus obtain solutions for all $xiin [1/2,1).$



What about $xiin (0,1/2]?$ That's easy, now that we've handled the other side. Just check that if $g$ is a solution for $xiin [1/2,1),$ then $1-g(1-x)$ is a solution for $1-xi.$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:42










  • +1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:58















up vote
2
down vote



+50







up vote
2
down vote



+50




+50




Just a few words on solving the nonpolynomial problem: First take $M=0.$ Then $f(x)=x(1-x)$ is a solution for $xi=1/2.$ For other values of $xiin (0,1),$ we look at $g_p(x)=f(x^p)$ for $p>0.$ We have $g_p'(x)=px^{p-1}f'(x^p)=0$ iff $x=(1/2)^{1/p}.$ Thus if $xi$ is given, we take $p=ln(1/2)/ln xi,$ and $g_p$ solves the problem. Finally, if $Mne 0$ and $xi$ is given, we take the same $p$ and the function $M(x+g_p(x))$ solves the problem.



On to polynomial solutions: WLOG $M=0$, for we can use the same idea as above for $Mne 0.$



Let $f(x)=x(1-x)$ as above. If $p$ is a polynomial with $p(0)=0,$ $p(1)=1$ and $p'>0$ on $(0,1),$ then $fcirc p$ is a polynomial that solves the problem for for the unique value $xi in(0,1)$ such that $p(xi)=1/2.$



For $0le b le 1,$ set $p_b(x)=(1-b)x^2 +bx.$ Then $p_b(0)=0,p_b(1)=1,$ and $p_b'>0$ on $(0,1).$ Consider the equation $p_b(x)-1/2=0.$ If $b=1,$ then $x=1/2$ is a solution. For $bin [0,1)$ we have a quadratic equation whose solution in $[0,1]$ is



$$x= frac{(b^2+2(1-b))^{1/2}-b}{2(1-b)}.$$



Verify the right side, as a function of $b,$ strictly decreases on $[0,1)$ from $1/2^{1/2}$ to $1/2.$ Thus for $xiin [1/2,1/2^{1/2}],$ there is a unique $b_{xi}in [0,1]$ such that $p_{b_{xi}}(xi)=1/2.$ Verify that $b_{xi}$ is given by the formula



$$b_{xi} = frac{1/2-xi^2}{xi(1-xi)}.$$



So we've solved the problem for $xiin[1/2,1/2^{1/2}].$ But we've also solved it for $xiin [1/2^{1/2},1/2^{1/4}].$ Just check that that for such $xi,$ $fcirc p_{b_{xi^2}}(x^2)$ does the job. We can keep moving to the right with such intervals and their solutions. We thus obtain solutions for all $xiin [1/2,1).$



What about $xiin (0,1/2]?$ That's easy, now that we've handled the other side. Just check that if $g$ is a solution for $xiin [1/2,1),$ then $1-g(1-x)$ is a solution for $1-xi.$






share|cite|improve this answer












Just a few words on solving the nonpolynomial problem: First take $M=0.$ Then $f(x)=x(1-x)$ is a solution for $xi=1/2.$ For other values of $xiin (0,1),$ we look at $g_p(x)=f(x^p)$ for $p>0.$ We have $g_p'(x)=px^{p-1}f'(x^p)=0$ iff $x=(1/2)^{1/p}.$ Thus if $xi$ is given, we take $p=ln(1/2)/ln xi,$ and $g_p$ solves the problem. Finally, if $Mne 0$ and $xi$ is given, we take the same $p$ and the function $M(x+g_p(x))$ solves the problem.



On to polynomial solutions: WLOG $M=0$, for we can use the same idea as above for $Mne 0.$



Let $f(x)=x(1-x)$ as above. If $p$ is a polynomial with $p(0)=0,$ $p(1)=1$ and $p'>0$ on $(0,1),$ then $fcirc p$ is a polynomial that solves the problem for for the unique value $xi in(0,1)$ such that $p(xi)=1/2.$



For $0le b le 1,$ set $p_b(x)=(1-b)x^2 +bx.$ Then $p_b(0)=0,p_b(1)=1,$ and $p_b'>0$ on $(0,1).$ Consider the equation $p_b(x)-1/2=0.$ If $b=1,$ then $x=1/2$ is a solution. For $bin [0,1)$ we have a quadratic equation whose solution in $[0,1]$ is



$$x= frac{(b^2+2(1-b))^{1/2}-b}{2(1-b)}.$$



Verify the right side, as a function of $b,$ strictly decreases on $[0,1)$ from $1/2^{1/2}$ to $1/2.$ Thus for $xiin [1/2,1/2^{1/2}],$ there is a unique $b_{xi}in [0,1]$ such that $p_{b_{xi}}(xi)=1/2.$ Verify that $b_{xi}$ is given by the formula



$$b_{xi} = frac{1/2-xi^2}{xi(1-xi)}.$$



So we've solved the problem for $xiin[1/2,1/2^{1/2}].$ But we've also solved it for $xiin [1/2^{1/2},1/2^{1/4}].$ Just check that that for such $xi,$ $fcirc p_{b_{xi^2}}(x^2)$ does the job. We can keep moving to the right with such intervals and their solutions. We thus obtain solutions for all $xiin [1/2,1).$



What about $xiin (0,1/2]?$ That's easy, now that we've handled the other side. Just check that if $g$ is a solution for $xiin [1/2,1),$ then $1-g(1-x)$ is a solution for $1-xi.$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 2 at 21:01









zhw.

71.1k43075




71.1k43075












  • That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:42










  • +1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:58




















  • That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 2 at 21:42










  • +1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 2 at 22:58


















That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:42




That's a much sleeker answer to the non-polynomial problem. And your polynomial answer almost feels like cheating. Very nice. And very different from alex.jordan's answer.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 2 at 21:42












+1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 22:58






+1 Suppose $xi$ is just below $1/2^{1/32}$ (for example). Then this answer constructs a polynomial of degree $32$. My answer produces a polynomial of degree $47$. So this answer is better by that measure. But then if $xi$ is just above $1/2^{1/32}$, my answer still produces a polynomial of degree $47$, and this construction produces an answer of degree $64$, reversing the comparison. This appears to extend to higher powers of $2$ and the two answers are trading the efficiency lead (as measured by lowest polynomial degree) back and forth as $xito1^{-}$.
– alex.jordan
Nov 2 at 22:58












up vote
1
down vote













Robert's comment about cubics is the best we can do.




Proposition: If $f$ is a polynomial of degree at most $3$ that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has exactly one value $xi in (0, 1)$ for which $f'(xi) = 0$, then $frac{1}{3} leq xi leq frac{2}{3}$.




Proof: Let $f$ have the following form: $$f(x) = x^3 + kx^2 - (1+k) x.$$ (We'll ignore for now the case $xi = frac{1}{2}$, which requires a quadratic; it's trivial to see that for no other value of $xi$ is a quadratic possible.) This is fully general, as wlog we can scale the coefficients of some possible solution $f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx$ (which must satisfy $a + b + c = 0$) without breaking any condition on $f$. The solutions to $f'(xi) = 3xi^2 + 2k xi - (1+k) = 0$ are thus $$xi = frac{k pm sqrt{k^2 + 3k + 3}}{3}.$$



This can be solved for $k$ by rearranging and squaring to get $(3 xi - k)^2 = k^2 + 3k + 3$, or $$k = frac{1 - 3 xi^2}{2 xi - 1}$$ but the squaring means that $xi$ could be either the upper or the lower solution for any given $k$. Regardless, we know that the fully general formula for a cubic that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has a not necessarily unique stationary point at $xi$, up to scaling of the coefficients, is $$f(x) = (2 xi - 1) x^3 + (1 - 3 xi^2) x^2 + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) x.$$



We now just need to see which of these cubics have two stationary points in $(0, 1)$. By the Vieta formulas, the solutions to $f'(x) = 3(2 xi - 1) x^2 + 2(1 - 3 xi^2) x + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) = 0$ add up to $frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)}.$ If $xi$ is one solution, then the other solution (call it $xi'$) is begin{align*} xi' &= frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)} - xi \ &= frac{6 xi^2 - 2}{6 xi - 3} - frac{6 xi^2 - 3 xi}{6 xi - 3} \ &= frac{3 xi - 2}{6 xi -3} \
&= frac{3 xi - frac{3}{2}}{6 xi - 3} - frac{frac{1}{2}}{6 xi - 3} \
&= frac{1}{2} - frac{1}{12xi - 6}.end{align*}

Thus, $xi' notin (0, 1)$ if and only if $|12 xi - 6| leq 2$, i.e., if $frac{1}{3} leqxi leq frac{2}{3}.$






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 5 at 3:46















up vote
1
down vote













Robert's comment about cubics is the best we can do.




Proposition: If $f$ is a polynomial of degree at most $3$ that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has exactly one value $xi in (0, 1)$ for which $f'(xi) = 0$, then $frac{1}{3} leq xi leq frac{2}{3}$.




Proof: Let $f$ have the following form: $$f(x) = x^3 + kx^2 - (1+k) x.$$ (We'll ignore for now the case $xi = frac{1}{2}$, which requires a quadratic; it's trivial to see that for no other value of $xi$ is a quadratic possible.) This is fully general, as wlog we can scale the coefficients of some possible solution $f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx$ (which must satisfy $a + b + c = 0$) without breaking any condition on $f$. The solutions to $f'(xi) = 3xi^2 + 2k xi - (1+k) = 0$ are thus $$xi = frac{k pm sqrt{k^2 + 3k + 3}}{3}.$$



This can be solved for $k$ by rearranging and squaring to get $(3 xi - k)^2 = k^2 + 3k + 3$, or $$k = frac{1 - 3 xi^2}{2 xi - 1}$$ but the squaring means that $xi$ could be either the upper or the lower solution for any given $k$. Regardless, we know that the fully general formula for a cubic that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has a not necessarily unique stationary point at $xi$, up to scaling of the coefficients, is $$f(x) = (2 xi - 1) x^3 + (1 - 3 xi^2) x^2 + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) x.$$



We now just need to see which of these cubics have two stationary points in $(0, 1)$. By the Vieta formulas, the solutions to $f'(x) = 3(2 xi - 1) x^2 + 2(1 - 3 xi^2) x + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) = 0$ add up to $frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)}.$ If $xi$ is one solution, then the other solution (call it $xi'$) is begin{align*} xi' &= frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)} - xi \ &= frac{6 xi^2 - 2}{6 xi - 3} - frac{6 xi^2 - 3 xi}{6 xi - 3} \ &= frac{3 xi - 2}{6 xi -3} \
&= frac{3 xi - frac{3}{2}}{6 xi - 3} - frac{frac{1}{2}}{6 xi - 3} \
&= frac{1}{2} - frac{1}{12xi - 6}.end{align*}

Thus, $xi' notin (0, 1)$ if and only if $|12 xi - 6| leq 2$, i.e., if $frac{1}{3} leqxi leq frac{2}{3}.$






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 5 at 3:46













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Robert's comment about cubics is the best we can do.




Proposition: If $f$ is a polynomial of degree at most $3$ that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has exactly one value $xi in (0, 1)$ for which $f'(xi) = 0$, then $frac{1}{3} leq xi leq frac{2}{3}$.




Proof: Let $f$ have the following form: $$f(x) = x^3 + kx^2 - (1+k) x.$$ (We'll ignore for now the case $xi = frac{1}{2}$, which requires a quadratic; it's trivial to see that for no other value of $xi$ is a quadratic possible.) This is fully general, as wlog we can scale the coefficients of some possible solution $f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx$ (which must satisfy $a + b + c = 0$) without breaking any condition on $f$. The solutions to $f'(xi) = 3xi^2 + 2k xi - (1+k) = 0$ are thus $$xi = frac{k pm sqrt{k^2 + 3k + 3}}{3}.$$



This can be solved for $k$ by rearranging and squaring to get $(3 xi - k)^2 = k^2 + 3k + 3$, or $$k = frac{1 - 3 xi^2}{2 xi - 1}$$ but the squaring means that $xi$ could be either the upper or the lower solution for any given $k$. Regardless, we know that the fully general formula for a cubic that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has a not necessarily unique stationary point at $xi$, up to scaling of the coefficients, is $$f(x) = (2 xi - 1) x^3 + (1 - 3 xi^2) x^2 + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) x.$$



We now just need to see which of these cubics have two stationary points in $(0, 1)$. By the Vieta formulas, the solutions to $f'(x) = 3(2 xi - 1) x^2 + 2(1 - 3 xi^2) x + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) = 0$ add up to $frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)}.$ If $xi$ is one solution, then the other solution (call it $xi'$) is begin{align*} xi' &= frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)} - xi \ &= frac{6 xi^2 - 2}{6 xi - 3} - frac{6 xi^2 - 3 xi}{6 xi - 3} \ &= frac{3 xi - 2}{6 xi -3} \
&= frac{3 xi - frac{3}{2}}{6 xi - 3} - frac{frac{1}{2}}{6 xi - 3} \
&= frac{1}{2} - frac{1}{12xi - 6}.end{align*}

Thus, $xi' notin (0, 1)$ if and only if $|12 xi - 6| leq 2$, i.e., if $frac{1}{3} leqxi leq frac{2}{3}.$






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Robert's comment about cubics is the best we can do.




Proposition: If $f$ is a polynomial of degree at most $3$ that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has exactly one value $xi in (0, 1)$ for which $f'(xi) = 0$, then $frac{1}{3} leq xi leq frac{2}{3}$.




Proof: Let $f$ have the following form: $$f(x) = x^3 + kx^2 - (1+k) x.$$ (We'll ignore for now the case $xi = frac{1}{2}$, which requires a quadratic; it's trivial to see that for no other value of $xi$ is a quadratic possible.) This is fully general, as wlog we can scale the coefficients of some possible solution $f(x) = ax^3 + bx^2 + cx$ (which must satisfy $a + b + c = 0$) without breaking any condition on $f$. The solutions to $f'(xi) = 3xi^2 + 2k xi - (1+k) = 0$ are thus $$xi = frac{k pm sqrt{k^2 + 3k + 3}}{3}.$$



This can be solved for $k$ by rearranging and squaring to get $(3 xi - k)^2 = k^2 + 3k + 3$, or $$k = frac{1 - 3 xi^2}{2 xi - 1}$$ but the squaring means that $xi$ could be either the upper or the lower solution for any given $k$. Regardless, we know that the fully general formula for a cubic that satisfies $f(0) = f(1) = 0$ and has a not necessarily unique stationary point at $xi$, up to scaling of the coefficients, is $$f(x) = (2 xi - 1) x^3 + (1 - 3 xi^2) x^2 + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) x.$$



We now just need to see which of these cubics have two stationary points in $(0, 1)$. By the Vieta formulas, the solutions to $f'(x) = 3(2 xi - 1) x^2 + 2(1 - 3 xi^2) x + (3 xi^2 - 2xi) = 0$ add up to $frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)}.$ If $xi$ is one solution, then the other solution (call it $xi'$) is begin{align*} xi' &= frac{2 (3 xi^2 - 1)}{3 (2 xi - 1)} - xi \ &= frac{6 xi^2 - 2}{6 xi - 3} - frac{6 xi^2 - 3 xi}{6 xi - 3} \ &= frac{3 xi - 2}{6 xi -3} \
&= frac{3 xi - frac{3}{2}}{6 xi - 3} - frac{frac{1}{2}}{6 xi - 3} \
&= frac{1}{2} - frac{1}{12xi - 6}.end{align*}

Thus, $xi' notin (0, 1)$ if and only if $|12 xi - 6| leq 2$, i.e., if $frac{1}{3} leqxi leq frac{2}{3}.$







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edited Nov 5 at 3:48

























answered Nov 5 at 1:55









Connor Harris

4,297723




4,297723








  • 1




    Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 5 at 3:46














  • 1




    Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
    – Robert Wolfe
    Nov 5 at 3:46








1




1




Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 5 at 3:46




Well, I'd say that finishes up any loose ends. We have two different aesthetic results and a proof of minimality for quartics. Couldn't have hoped for a better resolution.
– Robert Wolfe
Nov 5 at 3:46


















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