beta reduction: order of substitution












1














Do we always apply our input to the left most term in a lamda expression?



For instance, take the expressions:



$λP λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]$



$λP. λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP [λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]]$



If we apply an input to each expression, would the input in both expressions replace P? But if that's the case, wouldn't that make the two expressions equivalent?










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  • I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
    – Couchy311
    Nov 21 at 7:23
















1














Do we always apply our input to the left most term in a lamda expression?



For instance, take the expressions:



$λP λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]$



$λP. λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP [λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]]$



If we apply an input to each expression, would the input in both expressions replace P? But if that's the case, wouldn't that make the two expressions equivalent?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
    – Couchy311
    Nov 21 at 7:23














1












1








1







Do we always apply our input to the left most term in a lamda expression?



For instance, take the expressions:



$λP λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]$



$λP. λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP [λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]]$



If we apply an input to each expression, would the input in both expressions replace P? But if that's the case, wouldn't that make the two expressions equivalent?










share|cite|improve this question













Do we always apply our input to the left most term in a lamda expression?



For instance, take the expressions:



$λP λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]$



$λP. λQ. ∀x P(x)→Q(x)$ which we can rewrite as $[λP [λQ[ ∀x P(x)→Q(x)]]]$



If we apply an input to each expression, would the input in both expressions replace P? But if that's the case, wouldn't that make the two expressions equivalent?







first-order-logic lambda-calculus






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asked Nov 20 at 1:22









Matt

23818




23818












  • I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
    – Couchy311
    Nov 21 at 7:23


















  • I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
    – Couchy311
    Nov 21 at 7:23
















I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
– Couchy311
Nov 21 at 7:23




I don't see a difference between the two terms besides the dot, which has no meaning.
– Couchy311
Nov 21 at 7:23















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