Proof verification: the image of a continuous function on a connected domain is itself connected.











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Take the definition of a connected topological space to be one that has no clopen sets other than the space itself or the empty set.



I claim to prove that if $f: X to Y$ is a continuous function between topological spaces and that if $X$ is connected then the image $f(X)$ is connected also.



proof:



Assume for a contradiction that $X$ is connected and $f(X)$ is disconnected.



Then $exists U subset f(X)$ such that $U$ is clopen under the subset topology of $f(X)$ and $ U neq emptyset$, $U neq f(X)$.



Since $f$ is continuous, $f^{-1}(U)$ is both open and closed since $U$ is clopen. Hence $f^{-1}(U)$ is a clopen set in $X$, all that is left to do is to show that it is non trivial.



Since by assumption $U neq emptyset$ and $U subset f(X)$; $f^{-1}(U) neq emptyset$.



Furthermore $U neq f(X)$ so $exists a in f(X)backslash U$



$therefore f^{-1}{a} in X backslash f^{-1}(U)$



$therefore f^{-1}(U) neq X$



So $f^{-1}(U)$ is a non trivial clopen subset of $X$ and $X$ is disconnected contradictory to what was assumed. Therefore $f(X)$ must be connected also. $square$



Is this proof correct? It is different from the one I have seen in my topology class and I am dubious of its simplicity.










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  • Seems good to me!
    – MathUser_NotPrime
    Nov 13 at 22:56















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Take the definition of a connected topological space to be one that has no clopen sets other than the space itself or the empty set.



I claim to prove that if $f: X to Y$ is a continuous function between topological spaces and that if $X$ is connected then the image $f(X)$ is connected also.



proof:



Assume for a contradiction that $X$ is connected and $f(X)$ is disconnected.



Then $exists U subset f(X)$ such that $U$ is clopen under the subset topology of $f(X)$ and $ U neq emptyset$, $U neq f(X)$.



Since $f$ is continuous, $f^{-1}(U)$ is both open and closed since $U$ is clopen. Hence $f^{-1}(U)$ is a clopen set in $X$, all that is left to do is to show that it is non trivial.



Since by assumption $U neq emptyset$ and $U subset f(X)$; $f^{-1}(U) neq emptyset$.



Furthermore $U neq f(X)$ so $exists a in f(X)backslash U$



$therefore f^{-1}{a} in X backslash f^{-1}(U)$



$therefore f^{-1}(U) neq X$



So $f^{-1}(U)$ is a non trivial clopen subset of $X$ and $X$ is disconnected contradictory to what was assumed. Therefore $f(X)$ must be connected also. $square$



Is this proof correct? It is different from the one I have seen in my topology class and I am dubious of its simplicity.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Seems good to me!
    – MathUser_NotPrime
    Nov 13 at 22:56













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Take the definition of a connected topological space to be one that has no clopen sets other than the space itself or the empty set.



I claim to prove that if $f: X to Y$ is a continuous function between topological spaces and that if $X$ is connected then the image $f(X)$ is connected also.



proof:



Assume for a contradiction that $X$ is connected and $f(X)$ is disconnected.



Then $exists U subset f(X)$ such that $U$ is clopen under the subset topology of $f(X)$ and $ U neq emptyset$, $U neq f(X)$.



Since $f$ is continuous, $f^{-1}(U)$ is both open and closed since $U$ is clopen. Hence $f^{-1}(U)$ is a clopen set in $X$, all that is left to do is to show that it is non trivial.



Since by assumption $U neq emptyset$ and $U subset f(X)$; $f^{-1}(U) neq emptyset$.



Furthermore $U neq f(X)$ so $exists a in f(X)backslash U$



$therefore f^{-1}{a} in X backslash f^{-1}(U)$



$therefore f^{-1}(U) neq X$



So $f^{-1}(U)$ is a non trivial clopen subset of $X$ and $X$ is disconnected contradictory to what was assumed. Therefore $f(X)$ must be connected also. $square$



Is this proof correct? It is different from the one I have seen in my topology class and I am dubious of its simplicity.










share|cite|improve this question













Take the definition of a connected topological space to be one that has no clopen sets other than the space itself or the empty set.



I claim to prove that if $f: X to Y$ is a continuous function between topological spaces and that if $X$ is connected then the image $f(X)$ is connected also.



proof:



Assume for a contradiction that $X$ is connected and $f(X)$ is disconnected.



Then $exists U subset f(X)$ such that $U$ is clopen under the subset topology of $f(X)$ and $ U neq emptyset$, $U neq f(X)$.



Since $f$ is continuous, $f^{-1}(U)$ is both open and closed since $U$ is clopen. Hence $f^{-1}(U)$ is a clopen set in $X$, all that is left to do is to show that it is non trivial.



Since by assumption $U neq emptyset$ and $U subset f(X)$; $f^{-1}(U) neq emptyset$.



Furthermore $U neq f(X)$ so $exists a in f(X)backslash U$



$therefore f^{-1}{a} in X backslash f^{-1}(U)$



$therefore f^{-1}(U) neq X$



So $f^{-1}(U)$ is a non trivial clopen subset of $X$ and $X$ is disconnected contradictory to what was assumed. Therefore $f(X)$ must be connected also. $square$



Is this proof correct? It is different from the one I have seen in my topology class and I am dubious of its simplicity.







general-topology proof-verification continuity connectedness






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asked Nov 13 at 22:49









valcofadden

495




495












  • Seems good to me!
    – MathUser_NotPrime
    Nov 13 at 22:56


















  • Seems good to me!
    – MathUser_NotPrime
    Nov 13 at 22:56
















Seems good to me!
– MathUser_NotPrime
Nov 13 at 22:56




Seems good to me!
– MathUser_NotPrime
Nov 13 at 22:56










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You're almost good;



You cannot state that $f^{-1}(U)$ is clopen because you don't know that $f(X)$ is open or closed in $Y$!



To overcome this difficulty simply notice that the restriction map $f:X to f(X)$ is itself continuous, when $f$ is. Then the proof becomes quite trivial. Any separation of $f(X)$ projects back to two non empty sets, whose union must be $X$..






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – valcofadden
    Nov 13 at 23:41










  • @valcofadden You're welcome
    – Mariah
    Nov 13 at 23:47











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You're almost good;



You cannot state that $f^{-1}(U)$ is clopen because you don't know that $f(X)$ is open or closed in $Y$!



To overcome this difficulty simply notice that the restriction map $f:X to f(X)$ is itself continuous, when $f$ is. Then the proof becomes quite trivial. Any separation of $f(X)$ projects back to two non empty sets, whose union must be $X$..






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – valcofadden
    Nov 13 at 23:41










  • @valcofadden You're welcome
    – Mariah
    Nov 13 at 23:47















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You're almost good;



You cannot state that $f^{-1}(U)$ is clopen because you don't know that $f(X)$ is open or closed in $Y$!



To overcome this difficulty simply notice that the restriction map $f:X to f(X)$ is itself continuous, when $f$ is. Then the proof becomes quite trivial. Any separation of $f(X)$ projects back to two non empty sets, whose union must be $X$..






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – valcofadden
    Nov 13 at 23:41










  • @valcofadden You're welcome
    – Mariah
    Nov 13 at 23:47













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






You're almost good;



You cannot state that $f^{-1}(U)$ is clopen because you don't know that $f(X)$ is open or closed in $Y$!



To overcome this difficulty simply notice that the restriction map $f:X to f(X)$ is itself continuous, when $f$ is. Then the proof becomes quite trivial. Any separation of $f(X)$ projects back to two non empty sets, whose union must be $X$..






share|cite|improve this answer












You're almost good;



You cannot state that $f^{-1}(U)$ is clopen because you don't know that $f(X)$ is open or closed in $Y$!



To overcome this difficulty simply notice that the restriction map $f:X to f(X)$ is itself continuous, when $f$ is. Then the proof becomes quite trivial. Any separation of $f(X)$ projects back to two non empty sets, whose union must be $X$..







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 13 at 23:18









Mariah

1,237517




1,237517












  • Thank you for your answer!
    – valcofadden
    Nov 13 at 23:41










  • @valcofadden You're welcome
    – Mariah
    Nov 13 at 23:47


















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – valcofadden
    Nov 13 at 23:41










  • @valcofadden You're welcome
    – Mariah
    Nov 13 at 23:47
















Thank you for your answer!
– valcofadden
Nov 13 at 23:41




Thank you for your answer!
– valcofadden
Nov 13 at 23:41












@valcofadden You're welcome
– Mariah
Nov 13 at 23:47




@valcofadden You're welcome
– Mariah
Nov 13 at 23:47


















 

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