Does $d (x,y)= (x-y)^2$ define metric on a set of real numbers?











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It is a question in functional analysis by writer Erwin Kryzic










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    Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
    – Akiva Weinberger
    Jan 22 '17 at 8:41















up vote
3
down vote

favorite












It is a question in functional analysis by writer Erwin Kryzic










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
    – Akiva Weinberger
    Jan 22 '17 at 8:41













up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











It is a question in functional analysis by writer Erwin Kryzic










share|cite|improve this question















It is a question in functional analysis by writer Erwin Kryzic







metric-spaces






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edited Jan 22 '17 at 6:25









Fernando Revilla

3,282420




3,282420










asked Jan 22 '17 at 6:21









alishba fatima

161




161








  • 1




    Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
    – Akiva Weinberger
    Jan 22 '17 at 8:41














  • 1




    Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
    – Akiva Weinberger
    Jan 22 '17 at 8:41








1




1




Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
– Akiva Weinberger
Jan 22 '17 at 8:41




Let's say I want to travel from the point $0$ to the point $5$. If I go straight there, it will cost me $d(0,5)=25$ units. On the other hand, if I go one bit at a time, it will only cost me $d(0,1)+d(1,2)+dotsb+d(4,5)=5$ units.
– Akiva Weinberger
Jan 22 '17 at 8:41










2 Answers
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In order for it to be a metric it must follow these properties by definition,



$$d(x,y) geq 0$$



$$d(x,y)=0 iff x=y$$



$$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$



$$d(x,z) leq d(x,y)+d(y,z)$$



Does it?






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  • Hint: focus on the last property.
    – vadim123
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:29






  • 1




    Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
    – bof
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:34


















up vote
1
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Ok. The problem is the triangle inequality, then:



Let $x,y,z in mathbb{R}$, so $$d(x,z) = (x+y-y+z)^2$$ $$d(x,z) = ((x-y)+(y-z))^2$$ $$qquad d(x,z) = d(x,y)+2(x-y)(y-z)+d(y,z)$$ $$d(x,z) geq d(x,y)+d(y,z)quad iffquad (x-y)(y-z)geq0$$



Then, suppose what $x=3$, $z=1$, $y=2$, that which does not meet the triangular inequality, therefore, $d$ is not a metric






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    2 Answers
    2






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    2 Answers
    2






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    active

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    up vote
    5
    down vote













    In order for it to be a metric it must follow these properties by definition,



    $$d(x,y) geq 0$$



    $$d(x,y)=0 iff x=y$$



    $$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$



    $$d(x,z) leq d(x,y)+d(y,z)$$



    Does it?






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Hint: focus on the last property.
      – vadim123
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:29






    • 1




      Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
      – bof
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:34















    up vote
    5
    down vote













    In order for it to be a metric it must follow these properties by definition,



    $$d(x,y) geq 0$$



    $$d(x,y)=0 iff x=y$$



    $$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$



    $$d(x,z) leq d(x,y)+d(y,z)$$



    Does it?






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Hint: focus on the last property.
      – vadim123
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:29






    • 1




      Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
      – bof
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:34













    up vote
    5
    down vote










    up vote
    5
    down vote









    In order for it to be a metric it must follow these properties by definition,



    $$d(x,y) geq 0$$



    $$d(x,y)=0 iff x=y$$



    $$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$



    $$d(x,z) leq d(x,y)+d(y,z)$$



    Does it?






    share|cite|improve this answer












    In order for it to be a metric it must follow these properties by definition,



    $$d(x,y) geq 0$$



    $$d(x,y)=0 iff x=y$$



    $$d(x,y)=d(y,x)$$



    $$d(x,z) leq d(x,y)+d(y,z)$$



    Does it?







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 22 '17 at 6:25









    Ahmed S. Attaalla

    14.7k12049




    14.7k12049












    • Hint: focus on the last property.
      – vadim123
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:29






    • 1




      Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
      – bof
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:34


















    • Hint: focus on the last property.
      – vadim123
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:29






    • 1




      Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
      – bof
      Jan 22 '17 at 6:34
















    Hint: focus on the last property.
    – vadim123
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:29




    Hint: focus on the last property.
    – vadim123
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:29




    1




    1




    Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
    – bof
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:34




    Suppose $xlt ylt z$; does $d(x,z)le d(x,y)+d(y,z)$ ever hold for that funny definition of $d(x,y)?$
    – bof
    Jan 22 '17 at 6:34










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Ok. The problem is the triangle inequality, then:



    Let $x,y,z in mathbb{R}$, so $$d(x,z) = (x+y-y+z)^2$$ $$d(x,z) = ((x-y)+(y-z))^2$$ $$qquad d(x,z) = d(x,y)+2(x-y)(y-z)+d(y,z)$$ $$d(x,z) geq d(x,y)+d(y,z)quad iffquad (x-y)(y-z)geq0$$



    Then, suppose what $x=3$, $z=1$, $y=2$, that which does not meet the triangular inequality, therefore, $d$ is not a metric






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Ok. The problem is the triangle inequality, then:



      Let $x,y,z in mathbb{R}$, so $$d(x,z) = (x+y-y+z)^2$$ $$d(x,z) = ((x-y)+(y-z))^2$$ $$qquad d(x,z) = d(x,y)+2(x-y)(y-z)+d(y,z)$$ $$d(x,z) geq d(x,y)+d(y,z)quad iffquad (x-y)(y-z)geq0$$



      Then, suppose what $x=3$, $z=1$, $y=2$, that which does not meet the triangular inequality, therefore, $d$ is not a metric






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Ok. The problem is the triangle inequality, then:



        Let $x,y,z in mathbb{R}$, so $$d(x,z) = (x+y-y+z)^2$$ $$d(x,z) = ((x-y)+(y-z))^2$$ $$qquad d(x,z) = d(x,y)+2(x-y)(y-z)+d(y,z)$$ $$d(x,z) geq d(x,y)+d(y,z)quad iffquad (x-y)(y-z)geq0$$



        Then, suppose what $x=3$, $z=1$, $y=2$, that which does not meet the triangular inequality, therefore, $d$ is not a metric






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Ok. The problem is the triangle inequality, then:



        Let $x,y,z in mathbb{R}$, so $$d(x,z) = (x+y-y+z)^2$$ $$d(x,z) = ((x-y)+(y-z))^2$$ $$qquad d(x,z) = d(x,y)+2(x-y)(y-z)+d(y,z)$$ $$d(x,z) geq d(x,y)+d(y,z)quad iffquad (x-y)(y-z)geq0$$



        Then, suppose what $x=3$, $z=1$, $y=2$, that which does not meet the triangular inequality, therefore, $d$ is not a metric







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 13 at 1:46

























        answered Nov 13 at 1:34









        Franck Panche

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