Cauchy Sequence in subset of a metric space
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True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
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up vote
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True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
edited Nov 13 at 8:02
Henno Brandsma
101k344107
101k344107
asked Nov 13 at 6:45
51n84d
353
353
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
edited Nov 13 at 7:08
answered Nov 13 at 6:54
Robert Z
90.1k1056128
90.1k1056128
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
add a comment |
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
Nov 13 at 6:56
1
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
Nov 13 at 6:59
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
Nov 13 at 7:13
1
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
Nov 13 at 9:07
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
edited Nov 13 at 7:23
Henno Brandsma
101k344107
101k344107
answered Nov 13 at 7:04
Crazy for maths
5089
5089
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
answered Nov 13 at 7:16
Ovi
12.1k938108
12.1k938108
add a comment |
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