Proving $(A cup B) backslash (A cap B) = (A cup C) backslash (A cap C) implies B = C$












4












$begingroup$


Indirect proof. Assume that $B neq C$. Therefore I assume without loss of generality that $exists x (x in B land x notin C)$. This leaves us with two possible cases:



$x in A$. But then $x notin (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x in (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality.



$x notin A$. But then $x in (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x notin (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality as well.



Therefore $B = C$.



Is this proof complete and correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Correct........
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    Looks good to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    You only assume that B has any elements at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Johannes Kuhn
    Jan 2 at 10:58






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Graham Kemp
    Jan 2 at 11:06








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 2 at 12:07
















4












$begingroup$


Indirect proof. Assume that $B neq C$. Therefore I assume without loss of generality that $exists x (x in B land x notin C)$. This leaves us with two possible cases:



$x in A$. But then $x notin (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x in (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality.



$x notin A$. But then $x in (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x notin (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality as well.



Therefore $B = C$.



Is this proof complete and correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Correct........
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    Looks good to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    You only assume that B has any elements at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Johannes Kuhn
    Jan 2 at 10:58






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Graham Kemp
    Jan 2 at 11:06








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 2 at 12:07














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


Indirect proof. Assume that $B neq C$. Therefore I assume without loss of generality that $exists x (x in B land x notin C)$. This leaves us with two possible cases:



$x in A$. But then $x notin (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x in (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality.



$x notin A$. But then $x in (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x notin (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality as well.



Therefore $B = C$.



Is this proof complete and correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Indirect proof. Assume that $B neq C$. Therefore I assume without loss of generality that $exists x (x in B land x notin C)$. This leaves us with two possible cases:



$x in A$. But then $x notin (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x in (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality.



$x notin A$. But then $x in (A cup B) backslash (A cap B)$ and $x notin (A cup C) backslash (A cap C)$ which contradicts the given equality as well.



Therefore $B = C$.



Is this proof complete and correct?







discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 2 at 10:51









Asaf Karagila

309k33441775




309k33441775










asked Jan 2 at 10:44









KethoKetho

234




234








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Correct........
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    Looks good to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    You only assume that B has any elements at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Johannes Kuhn
    Jan 2 at 10:58






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Graham Kemp
    Jan 2 at 11:06








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 2 at 12:07














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Correct........
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    Looks good to me!
    $endgroup$
    – Erik Parkinson
    Jan 2 at 10:47










  • $begingroup$
    You only assume that B has any elements at all.
    $endgroup$
    – Johannes Kuhn
    Jan 2 at 10:58






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Graham Kemp
    Jan 2 at 11:06








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jan 2 at 12:07








2




2




$begingroup$
Correct........
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Jan 2 at 10:47




$begingroup$
Correct........
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Jan 2 at 10:47












$begingroup$
Looks good to me!
$endgroup$
– Erik Parkinson
Jan 2 at 10:47




$begingroup$
Looks good to me!
$endgroup$
– Erik Parkinson
Jan 2 at 10:47












$begingroup$
You only assume that B has any elements at all.
$endgroup$
– Johannes Kuhn
Jan 2 at 10:58




$begingroup$
You only assume that B has any elements at all.
$endgroup$
– Johannes Kuhn
Jan 2 at 10:58




1




1




$begingroup$
@JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Jan 2 at 11:06






$begingroup$
@JohannesKuhn In the case where $Bsupsetneq C$ there surely will be some elements in $B$.
$endgroup$
– Graham Kemp
Jan 2 at 11:06






2




2




$begingroup$
Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 2 at 12:07




$begingroup$
Some additional information: LHS is called symmetric difference between $A$ and $B$ denoted by $ADelta B$. Given $ADelta B=ADelta C $ we get $ ADelta (ADelta B)=ADelta (ADelta C) $ and the two side of the s equation are precisely $B$ and $C$!
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 2 at 12:07










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