Confusion regarding Cauchy's General Principle and Uniform Convergence












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The definitions of the two are so alike, that it confuses me.



Cauchy's General Principle:



The necessary and sufficient condition that a function $f(x)$ may tend to a definite limit, say $l$, as $x to a$, is that:



If $forall epsilon>0$, $exists$ a $ delta>0$ such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)| < epsilon$ whenever $0<|x_1-a|<delta, 0<|x_2-a|<delta $



Uniform Continuity:



A function $f$ defined on a domain $D$ is said to be uniformly continuous on the set $S$ $( S subset D)$ if:



$forall epsilon >0$, $exists $ a $delta>0$, such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)|< epsilon$ for any two points $x_1, x_2 in S$ with $|x_1-x_2| < delta$.



First of all, I understand that the former definition is a "Local Concept" i.e. it focuses around the particular point $a$ , while the other one is a "Global Concept", i.e. defined all over the set $S$. Another thing is, the sign "$0<$ " in the General Principle. It deletes the point "$a$" from the neighbourhood of both $x_1$ and $x_2$, while the other does not.
But the similarity is, both definitions give independence to choose arbitrary pair of points within a certain neighbourhood.



Is anything wrong with my perception? Am I missing anything very obvious?



Please do provide further insight.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    The definitions of the two are so alike, that it confuses me.



    Cauchy's General Principle:



    The necessary and sufficient condition that a function $f(x)$ may tend to a definite limit, say $l$, as $x to a$, is that:



    If $forall epsilon>0$, $exists$ a $ delta>0$ such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)| < epsilon$ whenever $0<|x_1-a|<delta, 0<|x_2-a|<delta $



    Uniform Continuity:



    A function $f$ defined on a domain $D$ is said to be uniformly continuous on the set $S$ $( S subset D)$ if:



    $forall epsilon >0$, $exists $ a $delta>0$, such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)|< epsilon$ for any two points $x_1, x_2 in S$ with $|x_1-x_2| < delta$.



    First of all, I understand that the former definition is a "Local Concept" i.e. it focuses around the particular point $a$ , while the other one is a "Global Concept", i.e. defined all over the set $S$. Another thing is, the sign "$0<$ " in the General Principle. It deletes the point "$a$" from the neighbourhood of both $x_1$ and $x_2$, while the other does not.
    But the similarity is, both definitions give independence to choose arbitrary pair of points within a certain neighbourhood.



    Is anything wrong with my perception? Am I missing anything very obvious?



    Please do provide further insight.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      The definitions of the two are so alike, that it confuses me.



      Cauchy's General Principle:



      The necessary and sufficient condition that a function $f(x)$ may tend to a definite limit, say $l$, as $x to a$, is that:



      If $forall epsilon>0$, $exists$ a $ delta>0$ such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)| < epsilon$ whenever $0<|x_1-a|<delta, 0<|x_2-a|<delta $



      Uniform Continuity:



      A function $f$ defined on a domain $D$ is said to be uniformly continuous on the set $S$ $( S subset D)$ if:



      $forall epsilon >0$, $exists $ a $delta>0$, such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)|< epsilon$ for any two points $x_1, x_2 in S$ with $|x_1-x_2| < delta$.



      First of all, I understand that the former definition is a "Local Concept" i.e. it focuses around the particular point $a$ , while the other one is a "Global Concept", i.e. defined all over the set $S$. Another thing is, the sign "$0<$ " in the General Principle. It deletes the point "$a$" from the neighbourhood of both $x_1$ and $x_2$, while the other does not.
      But the similarity is, both definitions give independence to choose arbitrary pair of points within a certain neighbourhood.



      Is anything wrong with my perception? Am I missing anything very obvious?



      Please do provide further insight.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      The definitions of the two are so alike, that it confuses me.



      Cauchy's General Principle:



      The necessary and sufficient condition that a function $f(x)$ may tend to a definite limit, say $l$, as $x to a$, is that:



      If $forall epsilon>0$, $exists$ a $ delta>0$ such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)| < epsilon$ whenever $0<|x_1-a|<delta, 0<|x_2-a|<delta $



      Uniform Continuity:



      A function $f$ defined on a domain $D$ is said to be uniformly continuous on the set $S$ $( S subset D)$ if:



      $forall epsilon >0$, $exists $ a $delta>0$, such that $|f(x_1)-f(x_2)|< epsilon$ for any two points $x_1, x_2 in S$ with $|x_1-x_2| < delta$.



      First of all, I understand that the former definition is a "Local Concept" i.e. it focuses around the particular point $a$ , while the other one is a "Global Concept", i.e. defined all over the set $S$. Another thing is, the sign "$0<$ " in the General Principle. It deletes the point "$a$" from the neighbourhood of both $x_1$ and $x_2$, while the other does not.
      But the similarity is, both definitions give independence to choose arbitrary pair of points within a certain neighbourhood.



      Is anything wrong with my perception? Am I missing anything very obvious?



      Please do provide further insight.







      limits continuity definition cauchy-sequences uniform-continuity






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      asked Jan 2 at 10:20









      Subhasis BiswasSubhasis Biswas

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          I get it that way:

          simple convergence :
          given a $in$ I, $forall epsilon>0, exists delta$ such as $|x-a|<delta implies |f(x)-f(a)|<epsilon$

          therefore this location is local, we defined a before epsilon so every epsilon is a function of a, and every delta a function of epsilon.

          In your definition of uniform continuity, x1 and x2 are introduced after epsilon and delta, (not x dependents) which guarantees the fonction converges at every x at the same "speed".






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            I get it that way:

            simple convergence :
            given a $in$ I, $forall epsilon>0, exists delta$ such as $|x-a|<delta implies |f(x)-f(a)|<epsilon$

            therefore this location is local, we defined a before epsilon so every epsilon is a function of a, and every delta a function of epsilon.

            In your definition of uniform continuity, x1 and x2 are introduced after epsilon and delta, (not x dependents) which guarantees the fonction converges at every x at the same "speed".






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              I get it that way:

              simple convergence :
              given a $in$ I, $forall epsilon>0, exists delta$ such as $|x-a|<delta implies |f(x)-f(a)|<epsilon$

              therefore this location is local, we defined a before epsilon so every epsilon is a function of a, and every delta a function of epsilon.

              In your definition of uniform continuity, x1 and x2 are introduced after epsilon and delta, (not x dependents) which guarantees the fonction converges at every x at the same "speed".






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                I get it that way:

                simple convergence :
                given a $in$ I, $forall epsilon>0, exists delta$ such as $|x-a|<delta implies |f(x)-f(a)|<epsilon$

                therefore this location is local, we defined a before epsilon so every epsilon is a function of a, and every delta a function of epsilon.

                In your definition of uniform continuity, x1 and x2 are introduced after epsilon and delta, (not x dependents) which guarantees the fonction converges at every x at the same "speed".






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I get it that way:

                simple convergence :
                given a $in$ I, $forall epsilon>0, exists delta$ such as $|x-a|<delta implies |f(x)-f(a)|<epsilon$

                therefore this location is local, we defined a before epsilon so every epsilon is a function of a, and every delta a function of epsilon.

                In your definition of uniform continuity, x1 and x2 are introduced after epsilon and delta, (not x dependents) which guarantees the fonction converges at every x at the same "speed".







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 2 at 10:54









                ReSpir3ReSpir3

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