Convergence of a complex series to a function with double poles on positive integers
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Prove that the series $sum_{z=1}^{infty} frac {1}{(z-n)^2}$ converges on the complex plane minus the positive integers to an analytic function with a double pole at each positive integer.
Now by limit comparison test with $frac {1}{n^2}$ we know that the series is absolutely convergent except at positive integers where it is not defined. More specifically, I am using that $$lim_{n to infty} frac{|frac {1}{(z-n)^2} |}{|frac{1}{n^2}|} = 1$$ I am not sure how to proceed from here.
complex-analysis
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that the series $sum_{z=1}^{infty} frac {1}{(z-n)^2}$ converges on the complex plane minus the positive integers to an analytic function with a double pole at each positive integer.
Now by limit comparison test with $frac {1}{n^2}$ we know that the series is absolutely convergent except at positive integers where it is not defined. More specifically, I am using that $$lim_{n to infty} frac{|frac {1}{(z-n)^2} |}{|frac{1}{n^2}|} = 1$$ I am not sure how to proceed from here.
complex-analysis
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$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
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– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that the series $sum_{z=1}^{infty} frac {1}{(z-n)^2}$ converges on the complex plane minus the positive integers to an analytic function with a double pole at each positive integer.
Now by limit comparison test with $frac {1}{n^2}$ we know that the series is absolutely convergent except at positive integers where it is not defined. More specifically, I am using that $$lim_{n to infty} frac{|frac {1}{(z-n)^2} |}{|frac{1}{n^2}|} = 1$$ I am not sure how to proceed from here.
complex-analysis
$endgroup$
Prove that the series $sum_{z=1}^{infty} frac {1}{(z-n)^2}$ converges on the complex plane minus the positive integers to an analytic function with a double pole at each positive integer.
Now by limit comparison test with $frac {1}{n^2}$ we know that the series is absolutely convergent except at positive integers where it is not defined. More specifically, I am using that $$lim_{n to infty} frac{|frac {1}{(z-n)^2} |}{|frac{1}{n^2}|} = 1$$ I am not sure how to proceed from here.
complex-analysis
complex-analysis
asked Jan 2 at 11:32
David Warren KatzDavid Warren Katz
598315
598315
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$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
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Hints:
1) Prove that $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is well defined, ie, that defines a function $f(z)$ for all $zinmathbb{C}-mathbb{N}$
2)Note that, for each $minmathbb{N}$, $$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}=dfrac{1}{(z-m)^2}+underbrace{sumlimits_{n=1,nneq m}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}}_{text{holomorphic in }V_m}$$ where $V_m$ is a neighborhood of $m$ (so that m is the only singularity there).
3) Remember the definition of pole
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To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
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– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
add a comment |
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In addition to what Martin Vacas Vignolo has suggested here is the argument needed to prove that series converges to an analytic function in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$: if $K subset mathbb C setminus mathbb N$ is compact then $|(z-n)^{2}|geq (n -|z|)^{2}$. Use the fact that $K$ is bounded and ignore the first few terms to conclude that the series converges uniformly on $K$. This proves that $sum frac 1 {(z-n)^{2}}$ is analytic in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$.
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which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
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– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
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@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
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– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hints:
1) Prove that $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is well defined, ie, that defines a function $f(z)$ for all $zinmathbb{C}-mathbb{N}$
2)Note that, for each $minmathbb{N}$, $$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}=dfrac{1}{(z-m)^2}+underbrace{sumlimits_{n=1,nneq m}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}}_{text{holomorphic in }V_m}$$ where $V_m$ is a neighborhood of $m$ (so that m is the only singularity there).
3) Remember the definition of pole
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints:
1) Prove that $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is well defined, ie, that defines a function $f(z)$ for all $zinmathbb{C}-mathbb{N}$
2)Note that, for each $minmathbb{N}$, $$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}=dfrac{1}{(z-m)^2}+underbrace{sumlimits_{n=1,nneq m}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}}_{text{holomorphic in }V_m}$$ where $V_m$ is a neighborhood of $m$ (so that m is the only singularity there).
3) Remember the definition of pole
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints:
1) Prove that $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is well defined, ie, that defines a function $f(z)$ for all $zinmathbb{C}-mathbb{N}$
2)Note that, for each $minmathbb{N}$, $$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}=dfrac{1}{(z-m)^2}+underbrace{sumlimits_{n=1,nneq m}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}}_{text{holomorphic in }V_m}$$ where $V_m$ is a neighborhood of $m$ (so that m is the only singularity there).
3) Remember the definition of pole
$endgroup$
Hints:
1) Prove that $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is well defined, ie, that defines a function $f(z)$ for all $zinmathbb{C}-mathbb{N}$
2)Note that, for each $minmathbb{N}$, $$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}=dfrac{1}{(z-m)^2}+underbrace{sumlimits_{n=1,nneq m}^infty dfrac{1}{(z-n)^2}}_{text{holomorphic in }V_m}$$ where $V_m$ is a neighborhood of $m$ (so that m is the only singularity there).
3) Remember the definition of pole
answered Jan 2 at 11:46
Martín Vacas VignoloMartín Vacas Vignolo
3,796623
3,796623
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
$begingroup$
To prove that it is well-defined, I need to show that the sum converges. I'm not sure how that follows
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 4 at 5:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In addition to what Martin Vacas Vignolo has suggested here is the argument needed to prove that series converges to an analytic function in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$: if $K subset mathbb C setminus mathbb N$ is compact then $|(z-n)^{2}|geq (n -|z|)^{2}$. Use the fact that $K$ is bounded and ignore the first few terms to conclude that the series converges uniformly on $K$. This proves that $sum frac 1 {(z-n)^{2}}$ is analytic in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In addition to what Martin Vacas Vignolo has suggested here is the argument needed to prove that series converges to an analytic function in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$: if $K subset mathbb C setminus mathbb N$ is compact then $|(z-n)^{2}|geq (n -|z|)^{2}$. Use the fact that $K$ is bounded and ignore the first few terms to conclude that the series converges uniformly on $K$. This proves that $sum frac 1 {(z-n)^{2}}$ is analytic in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In addition to what Martin Vacas Vignolo has suggested here is the argument needed to prove that series converges to an analytic function in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$: if $K subset mathbb C setminus mathbb N$ is compact then $|(z-n)^{2}|geq (n -|z|)^{2}$. Use the fact that $K$ is bounded and ignore the first few terms to conclude that the series converges uniformly on $K$. This proves that $sum frac 1 {(z-n)^{2}}$ is analytic in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$.
$endgroup$
In addition to what Martin Vacas Vignolo has suggested here is the argument needed to prove that series converges to an analytic function in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$: if $K subset mathbb C setminus mathbb N$ is compact then $|(z-n)^{2}|geq (n -|z|)^{2}$. Use the fact that $K$ is bounded and ignore the first few terms to conclude that the series converges uniformly on $K$. This proves that $sum frac 1 {(z-n)^{2}}$ is analytic in $mathbb C setminus mathbb N$.
answered Jan 2 at 11:55
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
76.9k53471
76.9k53471
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
which theorem are you invoking? how do you know it converges uniformly?
$endgroup$
– David Warren Katz
Jan 3 at 23:42
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
$begingroup$
@DavidWarren Use M-test. $sum_{n=[a]+1}^{infty} frac 1 {(n-a)^{2}} <infty$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 3 at 23:44
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$ is analytic for each $N$ and converges locally uniformly to $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{(z-n)^2}$
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Jan 2 at 11:36