Taylor series of $frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}$











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Consider the Taylor series of function $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{E_n}{n!}x^n$$
Prove that
$$E_0=1, E_{2n-1}=0, E_{2n}=-sum_{l=0}^{n-1}binom{2n}{2l}E_{2l}, ngeq 1$$.



I am thinking to write the LHS as $frac{1}{frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}}=frac{1}{cosh x}$, but I am stuck here. How can I derive the above recurrence relation? Any enlightenment please?










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    Consider the Taylor series of function $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{E_n}{n!}x^n$$
    Prove that
    $$E_0=1, E_{2n-1}=0, E_{2n}=-sum_{l=0}^{n-1}binom{2n}{2l}E_{2l}, ngeq 1$$.



    I am thinking to write the LHS as $frac{1}{frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}}=frac{1}{cosh x}$, but I am stuck here. How can I derive the above recurrence relation? Any enlightenment please?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
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      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite











      Consider the Taylor series of function $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{E_n}{n!}x^n$$
      Prove that
      $$E_0=1, E_{2n-1}=0, E_{2n}=-sum_{l=0}^{n-1}binom{2n}{2l}E_{2l}, ngeq 1$$.



      I am thinking to write the LHS as $frac{1}{frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}}=frac{1}{cosh x}$, but I am stuck here. How can I derive the above recurrence relation? Any enlightenment please?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Consider the Taylor series of function $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{E_n}{n!}x^n$$
      Prove that
      $$E_0=1, E_{2n-1}=0, E_{2n}=-sum_{l=0}^{n-1}binom{2n}{2l}E_{2l}, ngeq 1$$.



      I am thinking to write the LHS as $frac{1}{frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}}=frac{1}{cosh x}$, but I am stuck here. How can I derive the above recurrence relation? Any enlightenment please?







      sequences-and-series power-series taylor-expansion






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      edited Nov 13 at 13:46









      amWhy

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      191k27223437










      asked Nov 13 at 13:27









      user122049

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          You want
          $$
          left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)cosh x=1
          $$

          i.e.
          $$
          left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)
          left(sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac1{(2m)!}x^{2m}right)=1.
          $$

          Now expand the series in the LHS. Clearly all $E_n$ for $n$ odd must vanish, or there will be a least $n$, $n$ odd, such that $E_nneq 0$. Then the coefficient of $x^n$ would not vanish.



          So $E_0=1$, $E_{2n+1}=0$ for all $n$, and the coefficient of $x^{2n}$ gives
          $$
          sum_{m=0}^nfrac{E_{2(n-m)}}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=0
          $$

          which rearrange to the recurrence equation (remember $frac{(2n)!}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=binom{2n}{2(n-m)}$).






          share|cite|improve this answer




























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            note that:
            $$arctan(y)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}$$
            and:
            $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=frac{d}{dx}left[arctan(e^x)right]$$
            so:
            $$arctan(e^x)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}e^{(2n+1)x}$$
            so:
            $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty(-1)^ne^{(2n+1)x}$$
            and we know:
            $$e^x=sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{x^m}{m!}$$
            now we can say:
            $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^inftysum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^nleft[(2n+1)xright]^m}{m!}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















              Your Answer





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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              up vote
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              You want
              $$
              left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)cosh x=1
              $$

              i.e.
              $$
              left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)
              left(sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac1{(2m)!}x^{2m}right)=1.
              $$

              Now expand the series in the LHS. Clearly all $E_n$ for $n$ odd must vanish, or there will be a least $n$, $n$ odd, such that $E_nneq 0$. Then the coefficient of $x^n$ would not vanish.



              So $E_0=1$, $E_{2n+1}=0$ for all $n$, and the coefficient of $x^{2n}$ gives
              $$
              sum_{m=0}^nfrac{E_{2(n-m)}}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=0
              $$

              which rearrange to the recurrence equation (remember $frac{(2n)!}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=binom{2n}{2(n-m)}$).






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted










                You want
                $$
                left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)cosh x=1
                $$

                i.e.
                $$
                left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)
                left(sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac1{(2m)!}x^{2m}right)=1.
                $$

                Now expand the series in the LHS. Clearly all $E_n$ for $n$ odd must vanish, or there will be a least $n$, $n$ odd, such that $E_nneq 0$. Then the coefficient of $x^n$ would not vanish.



                So $E_0=1$, $E_{2n+1}=0$ for all $n$, and the coefficient of $x^{2n}$ gives
                $$
                sum_{m=0}^nfrac{E_{2(n-m)}}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=0
                $$

                which rearrange to the recurrence equation (remember $frac{(2n)!}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=binom{2n}{2(n-m)}$).






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  You want
                  $$
                  left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)cosh x=1
                  $$

                  i.e.
                  $$
                  left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)
                  left(sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac1{(2m)!}x^{2m}right)=1.
                  $$

                  Now expand the series in the LHS. Clearly all $E_n$ for $n$ odd must vanish, or there will be a least $n$, $n$ odd, such that $E_nneq 0$. Then the coefficient of $x^n$ would not vanish.



                  So $E_0=1$, $E_{2n+1}=0$ for all $n$, and the coefficient of $x^{2n}$ gives
                  $$
                  sum_{m=0}^nfrac{E_{2(n-m)}}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=0
                  $$

                  which rearrange to the recurrence equation (remember $frac{(2n)!}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=binom{2n}{2(n-m)}$).






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  You want
                  $$
                  left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)cosh x=1
                  $$

                  i.e.
                  $$
                  left(sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{E_n}{n!}x^nright)
                  left(sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac1{(2m)!}x^{2m}right)=1.
                  $$

                  Now expand the series in the LHS. Clearly all $E_n$ for $n$ odd must vanish, or there will be a least $n$, $n$ odd, such that $E_nneq 0$. Then the coefficient of $x^n$ would not vanish.



                  So $E_0=1$, $E_{2n+1}=0$ for all $n$, and the coefficient of $x^{2n}$ gives
                  $$
                  sum_{m=0}^nfrac{E_{2(n-m)}}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=0
                  $$

                  which rearrange to the recurrence equation (remember $frac{(2n)!}{[2(n-m)]!(2m)!}=binom{2n}{2(n-m)}$).







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 13 at 13:44









                  user10354138

                  6,314623




                  6,314623






















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      note that:
                      $$arctan(y)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}$$
                      and:
                      $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=frac{d}{dx}left[arctan(e^x)right]$$
                      so:
                      $$arctan(e^x)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}e^{(2n+1)x}$$
                      so:
                      $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty(-1)^ne^{(2n+1)x}$$
                      and we know:
                      $$e^x=sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{x^m}{m!}$$
                      now we can say:
                      $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^inftysum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^nleft[(2n+1)xright]^m}{m!}$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
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                        down vote













                        note that:
                        $$arctan(y)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}$$
                        and:
                        $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=frac{d}{dx}left[arctan(e^x)right]$$
                        so:
                        $$arctan(e^x)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}e^{(2n+1)x}$$
                        so:
                        $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty(-1)^ne^{(2n+1)x}$$
                        and we know:
                        $$e^x=sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{x^m}{m!}$$
                        now we can say:
                        $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^inftysum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^nleft[(2n+1)xright]^m}{m!}$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          note that:
                          $$arctan(y)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}$$
                          and:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=frac{d}{dx}left[arctan(e^x)right]$$
                          so:
                          $$arctan(e^x)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}e^{(2n+1)x}$$
                          so:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty(-1)^ne^{(2n+1)x}$$
                          and we know:
                          $$e^x=sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{x^m}{m!}$$
                          now we can say:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^inftysum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^nleft[(2n+1)xright]^m}{m!}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          note that:
                          $$arctan(y)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}$$
                          and:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=frac{d}{dx}left[arctan(e^x)right]$$
                          so:
                          $$arctan(e^x)=sum_{n=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}e^{(2n+1)x}$$
                          so:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^infty(-1)^ne^{(2n+1)x}$$
                          and we know:
                          $$e^x=sum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{x^m}{m!}$$
                          now we can say:
                          $$frac{2e^x}{e^{2x}+1}=sum_{n=0}^inftysum_{m=0}^inftyfrac{(-1)^nleft[(2n+1)xright]^m}{m!}$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 13 at 13:39









                          Henry Lee

                          1,626117




                          1,626117






























                               

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