Generalisation of the Poincaré Lemma











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Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and let $v : colon Omega to mathbb{R}^3$ be a continuously differentiable vector field. Assume that $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. As $Omega$ is not simply connected, we cannot conclude that there is a function $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $v = nabla varphi$.



However, if we additionally assume that for all smooth loops $gamma : colon [0, 1] to Omega$ the line integral
begin{equation}
int_{gamma} v(r) cdot textrm{d}r = 0, qquad (1)
end{equation}
then we find $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $ v = nabla varphi$.



My question is now:




Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and given a vector field $ v in L^2(Omega, mathbb{R}^3)$ with $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. Is there a similar condition like $(1)$ that ensures the existence of a function $varphi in H^1(Omega)$ such that $v = nabla varphi$?




Thanks in advance!










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    up vote
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    favorite












    Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and let $v : colon Omega to mathbb{R}^3$ be a continuously differentiable vector field. Assume that $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. As $Omega$ is not simply connected, we cannot conclude that there is a function $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $v = nabla varphi$.



    However, if we additionally assume that for all smooth loops $gamma : colon [0, 1] to Omega$ the line integral
    begin{equation}
    int_{gamma} v(r) cdot textrm{d}r = 0, qquad (1)
    end{equation}
    then we find $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $ v = nabla varphi$.



    My question is now:




    Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and given a vector field $ v in L^2(Omega, mathbb{R}^3)$ with $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. Is there a similar condition like $(1)$ that ensures the existence of a function $varphi in H^1(Omega)$ such that $v = nabla varphi$?




    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and let $v : colon Omega to mathbb{R}^3$ be a continuously differentiable vector field. Assume that $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. As $Omega$ is not simply connected, we cannot conclude that there is a function $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $v = nabla varphi$.



      However, if we additionally assume that for all smooth loops $gamma : colon [0, 1] to Omega$ the line integral
      begin{equation}
      int_{gamma} v(r) cdot textrm{d}r = 0, qquad (1)
      end{equation}
      then we find $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $ v = nabla varphi$.



      My question is now:




      Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and given a vector field $ v in L^2(Omega, mathbb{R}^3)$ with $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. Is there a similar condition like $(1)$ that ensures the existence of a function $varphi in H^1(Omega)$ such that $v = nabla varphi$?




      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and let $v : colon Omega to mathbb{R}^3$ be a continuously differentiable vector field. Assume that $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. As $Omega$ is not simply connected, we cannot conclude that there is a function $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $v = nabla varphi$.



      However, if we additionally assume that for all smooth loops $gamma : colon [0, 1] to Omega$ the line integral
      begin{equation}
      int_{gamma} v(r) cdot textrm{d}r = 0, qquad (1)
      end{equation}
      then we find $varphi in C^2(Omega, mathbb{R})$ such that $ v = nabla varphi$.



      My question is now:




      Let $Omega subset mathbb{R}^3$ be an open but not simply connected domain and given a vector field $ v in L^2(Omega, mathbb{R}^3)$ with $textrm{curl} , v = 0$ in $Omega$. Is there a similar condition like $(1)$ that ensures the existence of a function $varphi in H^1(Omega)$ such that $v = nabla varphi$?




      Thanks in advance!







      real-analysis differential-geometry reference-request






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      edited Jul 7 '16 at 13:28









      Henning Makholm

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      asked Jul 7 '16 at 13:19









      Mike

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          The general condition is that if for all divergence free compactly supported smooth vector fields, that is $f in mathcal{D}(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ with $div(f)=0$, $v in L^2(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ satisfies,
          begin{equation}
          int_Omega v.f dx = 0
          end{equation}


          then there will exist $phi in H^1(Omega) $ such that $v=nabla phi$. This condition on $v$ will imply $curl (v)=0$ but not the other way around. This is in fact quite a general result and would work for $v$ in more general Sobolev spaces or in the space of distributions (each component of $v$ is a distribution).






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            The general condition is that if for all divergence free compactly supported smooth vector fields, that is $f in mathcal{D}(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ with $div(f)=0$, $v in L^2(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ satisfies,
            begin{equation}
            int_Omega v.f dx = 0
            end{equation}


            then there will exist $phi in H^1(Omega) $ such that $v=nabla phi$. This condition on $v$ will imply $curl (v)=0$ but not the other way around. This is in fact quite a general result and would work for $v$ in more general Sobolev spaces or in the space of distributions (each component of $v$ is a distribution).






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              The general condition is that if for all divergence free compactly supported smooth vector fields, that is $f in mathcal{D}(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ with $div(f)=0$, $v in L^2(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ satisfies,
              begin{equation}
              int_Omega v.f dx = 0
              end{equation}


              then there will exist $phi in H^1(Omega) $ such that $v=nabla phi$. This condition on $v$ will imply $curl (v)=0$ but not the other way around. This is in fact quite a general result and would work for $v$ in more general Sobolev spaces or in the space of distributions (each component of $v$ is a distribution).






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                The general condition is that if for all divergence free compactly supported smooth vector fields, that is $f in mathcal{D}(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ with $div(f)=0$, $v in L^2(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ satisfies,
                begin{equation}
                int_Omega v.f dx = 0
                end{equation}


                then there will exist $phi in H^1(Omega) $ such that $v=nabla phi$. This condition on $v$ will imply $curl (v)=0$ but not the other way around. This is in fact quite a general result and would work for $v$ in more general Sobolev spaces or in the space of distributions (each component of $v$ is a distribution).






                share|cite|improve this answer












                The general condition is that if for all divergence free compactly supported smooth vector fields, that is $f in mathcal{D}(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ with $div(f)=0$, $v in L^2(Omega,mathbb{R}^3)$ satisfies,
                begin{equation}
                int_Omega v.f dx = 0
                end{equation}


                then there will exist $phi in H^1(Omega) $ such that $v=nabla phi$. This condition on $v$ will imply $curl (v)=0$ but not the other way around. This is in fact quite a general result and would work for $v$ in more general Sobolev spaces or in the space of distributions (each component of $v$ is a distribution).







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 13 at 13:30









                Animesh Pandey

                11




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