Finding Markov Chain of $Y_n = M_n - S_n$?











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Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?










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  • You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Nov 13 at 13:45















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Nov 13 at 13:45













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?










share|cite|improve this question















Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?







probability random-variables markov-chains






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edited Nov 13 at 14:10









Snookie

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asked Nov 13 at 13:36









jessg12345

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  • You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Nov 13 at 13:45


















  • You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
    – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
    Nov 13 at 13:45
















You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45




You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45










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You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.






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    You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.






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      up vote
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      You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
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        up vote
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        down vote









        You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.







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        answered Nov 13 at 14:04









        P. Quinton

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