Finding Markov Chain of $Y_n = M_n - S_n$?
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Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?
probability random-variables markov-chains
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Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?
probability random-variables markov-chains
You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45
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up vote
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?
probability random-variables markov-chains
Letting $X_n$ be i.i.d taking the value $1$ with probability $p$, and $-1$ with probably $1-p$,how do I show that $Y_n = M_n - S_n$, where $$M_n = max{0, S_1, S_2,ldots,S_n}$$ and $$S_n = X_1+ldots+X_n$$ is a Markov Chain? I can see that $M_n$ itself is not a Markov chain, but do not know how to show $Y_n = M_n - S_n$ is?
probability random-variables markov-chains
probability random-variables markov-chains
edited Nov 13 at 14:10
Snookie
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3559
asked Nov 13 at 13:36
jessg12345
64
64
You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45
add a comment |
You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45
You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45
You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45
add a comment |
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You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.
You need to look at the transition probability. Observe first that since $M_ngeq S_n$, you have $Y_ngeq 0$. If $Y_n = 0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=0$ and a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=1$. if $Y_n>0$ then there is a $1/2$ probability that $Y_{n+1}=Y_n pm 1$, this is because $M_{n+1}=M_n$ in this case. These are the transition probability for the normal one sided random walk.
answered Nov 13 at 14:04
P. Quinton
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You may verify that from one of the equivalent definitions. Please show us your work and where you're stuck, and avoid asking no-clue questions.
– GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
Nov 13 at 13:45