sufficient condition related to uniform continuity











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I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:



If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$



In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$



Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?



Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.



Thanks in advance!










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:



    If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$



    In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
    For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$



    Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?



    Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.



    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:



      If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$



      In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
      For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$



      Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?



      Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.



      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question













      I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:



      If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$



      In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
      For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$



      Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?



      Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.



      Thanks in advance!







      calculus real-analysis vector-analysis






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      asked Nov 13 at 13:40









      0706

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          2 Answers
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          0
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          OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
          Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.



          If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.



          If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
            – 0706
            Nov 13 at 14:08












          • even in $mathbb{R}$...
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:09










          • OK, please give one
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:18










          • $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:22










          • Oh of course I get it. Ouch
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:23


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.



          If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            2 Answers
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            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            up vote
            0
            down vote













            OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
            Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.



            If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.



            If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
              – 0706
              Nov 13 at 14:08












            • even in $mathbb{R}$...
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:09










            • OK, please give one
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:18










            • $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:22










            • Oh of course I get it. Ouch
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:23















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
            Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.



            If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.



            If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
              – 0706
              Nov 13 at 14:08












            • even in $mathbb{R}$...
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:09










            • OK, please give one
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:18










            • $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:22










            • Oh of course I get it. Ouch
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:23













            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
            Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.



            If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.



            If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
            Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.



            If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.



            If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 13 at 14:35

























            answered Nov 13 at 14:01









            Richard Martin

            1,3938




            1,3938












            • Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
              – 0706
              Nov 13 at 14:08












            • even in $mathbb{R}$...
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:09










            • OK, please give one
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:18










            • $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:22










            • Oh of course I get it. Ouch
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:23


















            • Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
              – 0706
              Nov 13 at 14:08












            • even in $mathbb{R}$...
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:09










            • OK, please give one
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:18










            • $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
              – user10354138
              Nov 13 at 14:22










            • Oh of course I get it. Ouch
              – Richard Martin
              Nov 13 at 14:23
















            Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
            – 0706
            Nov 13 at 14:08






            Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
            – 0706
            Nov 13 at 14:08














            even in $mathbb{R}$...
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:09




            even in $mathbb{R}$...
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:09












            OK, please give one
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:18




            OK, please give one
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:18












            $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:22




            $f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
            – user10354138
            Nov 13 at 14:22












            Oh of course I get it. Ouch
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:23




            Oh of course I get it. Ouch
            – Richard Martin
            Nov 13 at 14:23










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.



            If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.



              If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.



                If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)






                share|cite|improve this answer














                Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.



                If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Nov 14 at 0:53

























                answered Nov 13 at 14:29









                user10354138

                6,314623




                6,314623






























                     

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