sufficient condition related to uniform continuity
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I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:
If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$
In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$
Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?
Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.
Thanks in advance!
calculus real-analysis vector-analysis
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up vote
0
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favorite
I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:
If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$
In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$
Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?
Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.
Thanks in advance!
calculus real-analysis vector-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:
If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$
In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$
Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?
Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.
Thanks in advance!
calculus real-analysis vector-analysis
I'd like to know a sufficient condition for guaranteeing the following result:
If $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A$ and is uniformly continuous on $B$, then $f$ is uniformly continuous on $A cup B.$
In general, the above is false. But, for some cases, it is true.
For example, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$ and is uniformly continuous on $[1,2],$ then, clearly, $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1] cup [1,2]=[0,2].$
Are there any result to extend the above example for functions from a metric space to a metric space?
Please let me know if there are any comment or answer for the question.
Thanks in advance!
calculus real-analysis vector-analysis
calculus real-analysis vector-analysis
asked Nov 13 at 13:40
0706
375110
375110
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2 Answers
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OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.
If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.
If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.
If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.
If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.
If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.
If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.
If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.
If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.
If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.
OK so here was my first attempt: 'No further conditions are necessary. The definition of uniform continuity is this. Let $epsilon>0$. Then there exists $delta>0$ such that $|x-y|<delta Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon$. By assumption there is a $delta$ for interval $A$, and another for $B$, so pick the lower of the two.'
Not so, because $x$ could be from $A$ and $y$ from $B$.
If $A$ and $B$ are distance at least $d$ apart, i.e. the inf of the distance between a point in $A$ and one in $B$ is $d>0$, then you are OK, because if $delta<d$ then the points $x,y$ (as in the above argument) must be both in $A$ or both in $B$.
If $A,B$ have a point in common then again you are OK because you can use the triangle inequality: let $zin A cap B$, and then $|f(x)-f(y)| < |f(x)-f(z)| + |f(z)-f(y)| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2$, etc.
edited Nov 13 at 14:35
answered Nov 13 at 14:01
Richard Martin
1,3938
1,3938
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
|
show 2 more comments
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
Thanks for your answer. However, even in $mathbb{R}^2$, we can make an example of $f$ which is not uniformly continuous on $Acup B$ and $ Acap B neq emptyset.$
– 0706
Nov 13 at 14:08
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
even in $mathbb{R}$...
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:09
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
OK, please give one
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:18
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
$f=1_{x>sqrt{2}}$, $A=(-infty,sqrt{2})$, $B=(sqrt{2},infty)$
– user10354138
Nov 13 at 14:22
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
Oh of course I get it. Ouch
– Richard Martin
Nov 13 at 14:23
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.
If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.
If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.
If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)
Obviously, if $A,B$ are compact, then $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$, hence uniformly continuous by Heine-Cantor, but that is a little too obvious.
If $A,Bsubseteq X$ are closed, then we know $f$ is continuous on $Acup B$. For uniform continuity, we can impose something like: there exists $delta>0$ such that every $xin Acap B$ has either $B_delta(x)subseteq A$ or $B_delta(x)subseteq B$. (This is like what we did in the elementary proof that if $fin C(mathbb{R})$ with $lim_{xtopminfty}f(x)$ exists then $f$ is uniformly continuous.)
edited Nov 14 at 0:53
answered Nov 13 at 14:29
user10354138
6,314623
6,314623
add a comment |
add a comment |
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