How to convert $(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ into finite polynomial form?












-1












$begingroup$


$(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ is a member of bigger sum.



I want to convert whole sum into generic finite polynomial form.



How to do it?



I tried to find such a and b, where $(ax+b)^2$ would be equal to $tx^2+c$ to replace $(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ with $((ax+b)^2)^frac{1}{2}$ $=ax+b$ :



$tx^2+c=(ax+b)(ax+b)$



$(t-a^2)x^2+-2abx-(b^2-c)=0$



$D=(-2ab)^2+4(t-a^2)(b^2-c)$



$x=frac{2ab+D^frac{1}{2}}{2(t-a^2)}$



than I made substitution for x to get relationship between a and b, I always do have particular t and c. I can treat it as sum of squares. For $t=4$ and $c=2048$ I obtained this relationship for example:



$frac{16b^2a+32768a^2+64b^2+16ab(8192a^2+16b^2-32768)^frac{1}{2}}{4a^4-32a^2+64}=0$



Even if this my attempt is theoretically incorrect on your opinion, please ignore my attempt and tell how to do it in correct way on your opinion. The question is how to convert whole parent sum into finite polynomial form.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
    $endgroup$
    – Prakhar Nagpal
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:37










  • $begingroup$
    It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:45










  • $begingroup$
    It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 17:48
















-1












$begingroup$


$(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ is a member of bigger sum.



I want to convert whole sum into generic finite polynomial form.



How to do it?



I tried to find such a and b, where $(ax+b)^2$ would be equal to $tx^2+c$ to replace $(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ with $((ax+b)^2)^frac{1}{2}$ $=ax+b$ :



$tx^2+c=(ax+b)(ax+b)$



$(t-a^2)x^2+-2abx-(b^2-c)=0$



$D=(-2ab)^2+4(t-a^2)(b^2-c)$



$x=frac{2ab+D^frac{1}{2}}{2(t-a^2)}$



than I made substitution for x to get relationship between a and b, I always do have particular t and c. I can treat it as sum of squares. For $t=4$ and $c=2048$ I obtained this relationship for example:



$frac{16b^2a+32768a^2+64b^2+16ab(8192a^2+16b^2-32768)^frac{1}{2}}{4a^4-32a^2+64}=0$



Even if this my attempt is theoretically incorrect on your opinion, please ignore my attempt and tell how to do it in correct way on your opinion. The question is how to convert whole parent sum into finite polynomial form.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
    $endgroup$
    – Prakhar Nagpal
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:37










  • $begingroup$
    It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:45










  • $begingroup$
    It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 17:48














-1












-1








-1


2



$begingroup$


$(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ is a member of bigger sum.



I want to convert whole sum into generic finite polynomial form.



How to do it?



I tried to find such a and b, where $(ax+b)^2$ would be equal to $tx^2+c$ to replace $(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ with $((ax+b)^2)^frac{1}{2}$ $=ax+b$ :



$tx^2+c=(ax+b)(ax+b)$



$(t-a^2)x^2+-2abx-(b^2-c)=0$



$D=(-2ab)^2+4(t-a^2)(b^2-c)$



$x=frac{2ab+D^frac{1}{2}}{2(t-a^2)}$



than I made substitution for x to get relationship between a and b, I always do have particular t and c. I can treat it as sum of squares. For $t=4$ and $c=2048$ I obtained this relationship for example:



$frac{16b^2a+32768a^2+64b^2+16ab(8192a^2+16b^2-32768)^frac{1}{2}}{4a^4-32a^2+64}=0$



Even if this my attempt is theoretically incorrect on your opinion, please ignore my attempt and tell how to do it in correct way on your opinion. The question is how to convert whole parent sum into finite polynomial form.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ is a member of bigger sum.



I want to convert whole sum into generic finite polynomial form.



How to do it?



I tried to find such a and b, where $(ax+b)^2$ would be equal to $tx^2+c$ to replace $(tx^2+c)^frac{1}{2}$ with $((ax+b)^2)^frac{1}{2}$ $=ax+b$ :



$tx^2+c=(ax+b)(ax+b)$



$(t-a^2)x^2+-2abx-(b^2-c)=0$



$D=(-2ab)^2+4(t-a^2)(b^2-c)$



$x=frac{2ab+D^frac{1}{2}}{2(t-a^2)}$



than I made substitution for x to get relationship between a and b, I always do have particular t and c. I can treat it as sum of squares. For $t=4$ and $c=2048$ I obtained this relationship for example:



$frac{16b^2a+32768a^2+64b^2+16ab(8192a^2+16b^2-32768)^frac{1}{2}}{4a^4-32a^2+64}=0$



Even if this my attempt is theoretically incorrect on your opinion, please ignore my attempt and tell how to do it in correct way on your opinion. The question is how to convert whole parent sum into finite polynomial form.







algebra-precalculus polynomials






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 28 '18 at 9:15







Sergei

















asked Dec 27 '18 at 15:23









SergeiSergei

1216




1216












  • $begingroup$
    Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
    $endgroup$
    – Prakhar Nagpal
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:37










  • $begingroup$
    It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:45










  • $begingroup$
    It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 17:48


















  • $begingroup$
    Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
    $endgroup$
    – Prakhar Nagpal
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:30








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It is not a polynomial.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:37










  • $begingroup$
    It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:40










  • $begingroup$
    I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 15:45










  • $begingroup$
    It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
    $endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Dec 27 '18 at 17:48
















$begingroup$
Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
$endgroup$
– Prakhar Nagpal
Dec 27 '18 at 15:30






$begingroup$
Are you aware of Binomial Expansion for non-integral indices?
$endgroup$
– Prakhar Nagpal
Dec 27 '18 at 15:30






2




2




$begingroup$
It is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Dec 27 '18 at 15:37




$begingroup$
It is not a polynomial.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Dec 27 '18 at 15:37












$begingroup$
It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 27 '18 at 15:40




$begingroup$
It can be written as an infinite series via a generalization of binomial theorem. I would think that you can probably get the same result (perhaps with less effort) with Taylor series.
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 27 '18 at 15:40












$begingroup$
I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
$endgroup$
– Sergei
Dec 27 '18 at 15:45




$begingroup$
I'd be comfortable with finite polynomial as result.
$endgroup$
– Sergei
Dec 27 '18 at 15:45












$begingroup$
It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Sergei
Dec 27 '18 at 17:48




$begingroup$
It is yet to find out how to get the polynomial. This is the question. I need finite polynomial because of its later usage. Is it possible? If not, can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Sergei
Dec 27 '18 at 17:48










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

You seem not understand that what you want is impossible. Proof below :



Suppose that what you expect be possible. Then a polynomial would exist on the form :
$$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n$$



$$tx^2+c=(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n)^2$$
Expanding leads to :
$$tx^2+c=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+(a_1^2+2a_0a_2)x^2+...+a_n^2x^{2n}$$
Two equal polynomials are necessary on the same degree. Thus $2n=2$
$$n=1$$
$$c+tx^2=(a_0+a_1x)^2=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+a_1x^2$$
$$a_0^2=c$$
$$2a_0a_1=0 quadimpliesquad a_1=0 quadtext{if } cneq 0.$$
$$a_1^2=t$$
$a_1^2=t$ is contradictory with $a_1=0$ , except if $c=0$ or $t=0$.



Thus the only case where $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be equal to a not constant polynomial is when $c=0$ and the polynomial is $t^{1/2}x$.



Conclusion : Definitively $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$cannot be equal to a polynomial except in the trivial cases $c=0$ or $t=0$.



NOTE :



Don't confuse polynomial with infinite series. $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be expended to an infinite series :
$$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=c^{1/2}+frac{t}{2c^{1/2}}x^2-frac{t^2}{8c^{3/2}}x^4+...+left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)frac{t^k}{c^{k-frac12}}x^{2k}+...$$
in $|x|<frac{c}{t}$ , with binomial coefficients $left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)$ and $k=0text{ to } infty.$



Infinite series are not polynomials. For example some transcendantal functions, which of course are not polynomials, are defined by infinite series.



So, if your question was not for polynomial, but for infinite series, my answer should be that it is possible : the infinite series is given above.



Instead of converting what you call "the whole parent sum" into a sum of polynomials, may be you could convert it into a sum of infinite series. Since your question doesn't give the context of the original problem it is not possible to say if it is or not a good method.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Well, as many said before, this is not a polynomial (as a function of $x$). Check that
    $$tx^2+c=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
    implies that $2ab$ has to be zero, so at least one of $a$ and $b$ has to be zero; this leaves as with $b$ or with $ax$. And it is clear that $tx^2+c$ is not $b^2$ nor $(ax)^2$.



    About your procedure, even if you give $t$ and $c$ specific values (say $2$ and $3$), there's no point in solving for $x$, since you're not looking for the condition
    $$2x^2+3=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
    to hold for some specific value/s of $x$, but you want[ed] this to hold for every $xinmathbb R$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
      $endgroup$
      – Sergei
      Dec 28 '18 at 7:15










    • $begingroup$
      Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
      $endgroup$
      – Alejandro Nasif Salum
      Dec 28 '18 at 8:24












    • $begingroup$
      thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
      $endgroup$
      – Sergei
      Dec 28 '18 at 9:21












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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    You seem not understand that what you want is impossible. Proof below :



    Suppose that what you expect be possible. Then a polynomial would exist on the form :
    $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n$$



    $$tx^2+c=(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n)^2$$
    Expanding leads to :
    $$tx^2+c=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+(a_1^2+2a_0a_2)x^2+...+a_n^2x^{2n}$$
    Two equal polynomials are necessary on the same degree. Thus $2n=2$
    $$n=1$$
    $$c+tx^2=(a_0+a_1x)^2=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+a_1x^2$$
    $$a_0^2=c$$
    $$2a_0a_1=0 quadimpliesquad a_1=0 quadtext{if } cneq 0.$$
    $$a_1^2=t$$
    $a_1^2=t$ is contradictory with $a_1=0$ , except if $c=0$ or $t=0$.



    Thus the only case where $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be equal to a not constant polynomial is when $c=0$ and the polynomial is $t^{1/2}x$.



    Conclusion : Definitively $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$cannot be equal to a polynomial except in the trivial cases $c=0$ or $t=0$.



    NOTE :



    Don't confuse polynomial with infinite series. $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be expended to an infinite series :
    $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=c^{1/2}+frac{t}{2c^{1/2}}x^2-frac{t^2}{8c^{3/2}}x^4+...+left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)frac{t^k}{c^{k-frac12}}x^{2k}+...$$
    in $|x|<frac{c}{t}$ , with binomial coefficients $left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)$ and $k=0text{ to } infty.$



    Infinite series are not polynomials. For example some transcendantal functions, which of course are not polynomials, are defined by infinite series.



    So, if your question was not for polynomial, but for infinite series, my answer should be that it is possible : the infinite series is given above.



    Instead of converting what you call "the whole parent sum" into a sum of polynomials, may be you could convert it into a sum of infinite series. Since your question doesn't give the context of the original problem it is not possible to say if it is or not a good method.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      You seem not understand that what you want is impossible. Proof below :



      Suppose that what you expect be possible. Then a polynomial would exist on the form :
      $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n$$



      $$tx^2+c=(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n)^2$$
      Expanding leads to :
      $$tx^2+c=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+(a_1^2+2a_0a_2)x^2+...+a_n^2x^{2n}$$
      Two equal polynomials are necessary on the same degree. Thus $2n=2$
      $$n=1$$
      $$c+tx^2=(a_0+a_1x)^2=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+a_1x^2$$
      $$a_0^2=c$$
      $$2a_0a_1=0 quadimpliesquad a_1=0 quadtext{if } cneq 0.$$
      $$a_1^2=t$$
      $a_1^2=t$ is contradictory with $a_1=0$ , except if $c=0$ or $t=0$.



      Thus the only case where $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be equal to a not constant polynomial is when $c=0$ and the polynomial is $t^{1/2}x$.



      Conclusion : Definitively $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$cannot be equal to a polynomial except in the trivial cases $c=0$ or $t=0$.



      NOTE :



      Don't confuse polynomial with infinite series. $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be expended to an infinite series :
      $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=c^{1/2}+frac{t}{2c^{1/2}}x^2-frac{t^2}{8c^{3/2}}x^4+...+left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)frac{t^k}{c^{k-frac12}}x^{2k}+...$$
      in $|x|<frac{c}{t}$ , with binomial coefficients $left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)$ and $k=0text{ to } infty.$



      Infinite series are not polynomials. For example some transcendantal functions, which of course are not polynomials, are defined by infinite series.



      So, if your question was not for polynomial, but for infinite series, my answer should be that it is possible : the infinite series is given above.



      Instead of converting what you call "the whole parent sum" into a sum of polynomials, may be you could convert it into a sum of infinite series. Since your question doesn't give the context of the original problem it is not possible to say if it is or not a good method.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        You seem not understand that what you want is impossible. Proof below :



        Suppose that what you expect be possible. Then a polynomial would exist on the form :
        $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n$$



        $$tx^2+c=(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n)^2$$
        Expanding leads to :
        $$tx^2+c=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+(a_1^2+2a_0a_2)x^2+...+a_n^2x^{2n}$$
        Two equal polynomials are necessary on the same degree. Thus $2n=2$
        $$n=1$$
        $$c+tx^2=(a_0+a_1x)^2=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+a_1x^2$$
        $$a_0^2=c$$
        $$2a_0a_1=0 quadimpliesquad a_1=0 quadtext{if } cneq 0.$$
        $$a_1^2=t$$
        $a_1^2=t$ is contradictory with $a_1=0$ , except if $c=0$ or $t=0$.



        Thus the only case where $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be equal to a not constant polynomial is when $c=0$ and the polynomial is $t^{1/2}x$.



        Conclusion : Definitively $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$cannot be equal to a polynomial except in the trivial cases $c=0$ or $t=0$.



        NOTE :



        Don't confuse polynomial with infinite series. $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be expended to an infinite series :
        $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=c^{1/2}+frac{t}{2c^{1/2}}x^2-frac{t^2}{8c^{3/2}}x^4+...+left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)frac{t^k}{c^{k-frac12}}x^{2k}+...$$
        in $|x|<frac{c}{t}$ , with binomial coefficients $left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)$ and $k=0text{ to } infty.$



        Infinite series are not polynomials. For example some transcendantal functions, which of course are not polynomials, are defined by infinite series.



        So, if your question was not for polynomial, but for infinite series, my answer should be that it is possible : the infinite series is given above.



        Instead of converting what you call "the whole parent sum" into a sum of polynomials, may be you could convert it into a sum of infinite series. Since your question doesn't give the context of the original problem it is not possible to say if it is or not a good method.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        You seem not understand that what you want is impossible. Proof below :



        Suppose that what you expect be possible. Then a polynomial would exist on the form :
        $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n$$



        $$tx^2+c=(a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+...+a_nx^n)^2$$
        Expanding leads to :
        $$tx^2+c=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+(a_1^2+2a_0a_2)x^2+...+a_n^2x^{2n}$$
        Two equal polynomials are necessary on the same degree. Thus $2n=2$
        $$n=1$$
        $$c+tx^2=(a_0+a_1x)^2=a_0^2+2a_0a_1x+a_1x^2$$
        $$a_0^2=c$$
        $$2a_0a_1=0 quadimpliesquad a_1=0 quadtext{if } cneq 0.$$
        $$a_1^2=t$$
        $a_1^2=t$ is contradictory with $a_1=0$ , except if $c=0$ or $t=0$.



        Thus the only case where $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be equal to a not constant polynomial is when $c=0$ and the polynomial is $t^{1/2}x$.



        Conclusion : Definitively $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$cannot be equal to a polynomial except in the trivial cases $c=0$ or $t=0$.



        NOTE :



        Don't confuse polynomial with infinite series. $(tx^2+c)^{1/2}$ can be expended to an infinite series :
        $$(tx^2+c)^{1/2}=c^{1/2}+frac{t}{2c^{1/2}}x^2-frac{t^2}{8c^{3/2}}x^4+...+left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)frac{t^k}{c^{k-frac12}}x^{2k}+...$$
        in $|x|<frac{c}{t}$ , with binomial coefficients $left(begin{matrix}1/2\k end{matrix} right)$ and $k=0text{ to } infty.$



        Infinite series are not polynomials. For example some transcendantal functions, which of course are not polynomials, are defined by infinite series.



        So, if your question was not for polynomial, but for infinite series, my answer should be that it is possible : the infinite series is given above.



        Instead of converting what you call "the whole parent sum" into a sum of polynomials, may be you could convert it into a sum of infinite series. Since your question doesn't give the context of the original problem it is not possible to say if it is or not a good method.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 28 '18 at 10:15

























        answered Dec 28 '18 at 8:22









        JJacquelinJJacquelin

        45.6k21857




        45.6k21857























            0












            $begingroup$

            Well, as many said before, this is not a polynomial (as a function of $x$). Check that
            $$tx^2+c=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            implies that $2ab$ has to be zero, so at least one of $a$ and $b$ has to be zero; this leaves as with $b$ or with $ax$. And it is clear that $tx^2+c$ is not $b^2$ nor $(ax)^2$.



            About your procedure, even if you give $t$ and $c$ specific values (say $2$ and $3$), there's no point in solving for $x$, since you're not looking for the condition
            $$2x^2+3=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            to hold for some specific value/s of $x$, but you want[ed] this to hold for every $xinmathbb R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 7:15










            • $begingroup$
              Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alejandro Nasif Salum
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:24












            • $begingroup$
              thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 9:21
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Well, as many said before, this is not a polynomial (as a function of $x$). Check that
            $$tx^2+c=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            implies that $2ab$ has to be zero, so at least one of $a$ and $b$ has to be zero; this leaves as with $b$ or with $ax$. And it is clear that $tx^2+c$ is not $b^2$ nor $(ax)^2$.



            About your procedure, even if you give $t$ and $c$ specific values (say $2$ and $3$), there's no point in solving for $x$, since you're not looking for the condition
            $$2x^2+3=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            to hold for some specific value/s of $x$, but you want[ed] this to hold for every $xinmathbb R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 7:15










            • $begingroup$
              Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alejandro Nasif Salum
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:24












            • $begingroup$
              thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 9:21














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Well, as many said before, this is not a polynomial (as a function of $x$). Check that
            $$tx^2+c=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            implies that $2ab$ has to be zero, so at least one of $a$ and $b$ has to be zero; this leaves as with $b$ or with $ax$. And it is clear that $tx^2+c$ is not $b^2$ nor $(ax)^2$.



            About your procedure, even if you give $t$ and $c$ specific values (say $2$ and $3$), there's no point in solving for $x$, since you're not looking for the condition
            $$2x^2+3=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            to hold for some specific value/s of $x$, but you want[ed] this to hold for every $xinmathbb R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Well, as many said before, this is not a polynomial (as a function of $x$). Check that
            $$tx^2+c=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            implies that $2ab$ has to be zero, so at least one of $a$ and $b$ has to be zero; this leaves as with $b$ or with $ax$. And it is clear that $tx^2+c$ is not $b^2$ nor $(ax)^2$.



            About your procedure, even if you give $t$ and $c$ specific values (say $2$ and $3$), there's no point in solving for $x$, since you're not looking for the condition
            $$2x^2+3=a^2x+2abx+b^2$$
            to hold for some specific value/s of $x$, but you want[ed] this to hold for every $xinmathbb R$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 28 '18 at 6:35









            Alejandro Nasif SalumAlejandro Nasif Salum

            4,800118




            4,800118












            • $begingroup$
              no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 7:15










            • $begingroup$
              Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alejandro Nasif Salum
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:24












            • $begingroup$
              thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 9:21


















            • $begingroup$
              no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 7:15










            • $begingroup$
              Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
              $endgroup$
              – Alejandro Nasif Salum
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:24












            • $begingroup$
              thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
              $endgroup$
              – Sergei
              Dec 28 '18 at 9:21
















            $begingroup$
            no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
            $endgroup$
            – Sergei
            Dec 28 '18 at 7:15




            $begingroup$
            no, not necessarily $ab=0$, because not necessary $t=a^2$, $c=b^2$
            $endgroup$
            – Sergei
            Dec 28 '18 at 7:15












            $begingroup$
            Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
            $endgroup$
            – Alejandro Nasif Salum
            Dec 28 '18 at 8:24






            $begingroup$
            Well, if $tneq a^2$ or $cneq b^2$, or if $2abneq 0$, then $tx^2+c$ and $a^2x^2+2abx+b^2$ are not the same polynomial in the variable $x$. It can be proved that two polynomials in a variable $x$, say $$p(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+cdots+a_2x^2+a_1x+a_0, quad a_nneq 0$$ and $$q(x)=b_mx^m+b_{m-1}x^{m-1}+cdots+b_2x^2+b_1x+b_0,quad b_mneq 0$$ are equal (that is, the same polynomial function) if and only if $n=m$ and $a_k=b_k$ for all $k=0,1,2,ldots,m=n$.
            $endgroup$
            – Alejandro Nasif Salum
            Dec 28 '18 at 8:24














            $begingroup$
            thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
            $endgroup$
            – Sergei
            Dec 28 '18 at 9:21




            $begingroup$
            thank you Alejandro, I can see why you think this is impossible to get the same polynomial component. My point is that may be an irrational polynomial. Like despite that fact that real number cannot have two values at once, you still can build system where it is. For example this expression $((v1+v2)+((-1)^frac{1}{2})*(v1-v2))/2$ is equivalent to v1 and v2 in conjunction.
            $endgroup$
            – Sergei
            Dec 28 '18 at 9:21


















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