Degrees of freedom of Riemann curvature tensor












3












$begingroup$


I know the argument that uses the symmetries




  1. $R_{a b c d} = -R_{b a c d} = R_{c d a b}$

  2. $R_{a b c d} + R_{b c a d} + R_{c a b d} = 0$


of the Riemann curvature tensor $R$ of an $n$-dimensional Riemannian manifold to show that it (the curvature tensor) has at most $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ degrees of freedom (see for example here, section 7) at a given point.



As far as I know $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ is the actual number of degrees of freedom, so my question is how does one get the lower bound?



EDIT: To clarify: The argument I linked to shows that using the mentioned symmetries $frac1{12}n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ of the $n^4$ entries of $R$ already determine it. However there could be other constraints like symmetries or inequalities that make the actual number of degrees of freedom even lower. As far as I know, this is not the case and my but I would like a proof of this.



(The only wat to prove this I can think of would be constructing a family of manifolds parametrized by $mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ such that for a given $p in mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ the corresponding manifold has the curvature tensor corresponding to $p$ at some point.)










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    lower bound on what ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr on the degrees of freedom.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:25










  • $begingroup$
    Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:08










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 16 at 11:12
















3












$begingroup$


I know the argument that uses the symmetries




  1. $R_{a b c d} = -R_{b a c d} = R_{c d a b}$

  2. $R_{a b c d} + R_{b c a d} + R_{c a b d} = 0$


of the Riemann curvature tensor $R$ of an $n$-dimensional Riemannian manifold to show that it (the curvature tensor) has at most $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ degrees of freedom (see for example here, section 7) at a given point.



As far as I know $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ is the actual number of degrees of freedom, so my question is how does one get the lower bound?



EDIT: To clarify: The argument I linked to shows that using the mentioned symmetries $frac1{12}n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ of the $n^4$ entries of $R$ already determine it. However there could be other constraints like symmetries or inequalities that make the actual number of degrees of freedom even lower. As far as I know, this is not the case and my but I would like a proof of this.



(The only wat to prove this I can think of would be constructing a family of manifolds parametrized by $mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ such that for a given $p in mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ the corresponding manifold has the curvature tensor corresponding to $p$ at some point.)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    lower bound on what ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr on the degrees of freedom.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:25










  • $begingroup$
    Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:08










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 16 at 11:12














3












3








3


2



$begingroup$


I know the argument that uses the symmetries




  1. $R_{a b c d} = -R_{b a c d} = R_{c d a b}$

  2. $R_{a b c d} + R_{b c a d} + R_{c a b d} = 0$


of the Riemann curvature tensor $R$ of an $n$-dimensional Riemannian manifold to show that it (the curvature tensor) has at most $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ degrees of freedom (see for example here, section 7) at a given point.



As far as I know $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ is the actual number of degrees of freedom, so my question is how does one get the lower bound?



EDIT: To clarify: The argument I linked to shows that using the mentioned symmetries $frac1{12}n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ of the $n^4$ entries of $R$ already determine it. However there could be other constraints like symmetries or inequalities that make the actual number of degrees of freedom even lower. As far as I know, this is not the case and my but I would like a proof of this.



(The only wat to prove this I can think of would be constructing a family of manifolds parametrized by $mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ such that for a given $p in mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ the corresponding manifold has the curvature tensor corresponding to $p$ at some point.)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know the argument that uses the symmetries




  1. $R_{a b c d} = -R_{b a c d} = R_{c d a b}$

  2. $R_{a b c d} + R_{b c a d} + R_{c a b d} = 0$


of the Riemann curvature tensor $R$ of an $n$-dimensional Riemannian manifold to show that it (the curvature tensor) has at most $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ degrees of freedom (see for example here, section 7) at a given point.



As far as I know $frac1{12} n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ is the actual number of degrees of freedom, so my question is how does one get the lower bound?



EDIT: To clarify: The argument I linked to shows that using the mentioned symmetries $frac1{12}n^2 (n^2 - 1)$ of the $n^4$ entries of $R$ already determine it. However there could be other constraints like symmetries or inequalities that make the actual number of degrees of freedom even lower. As far as I know, this is not the case and my but I would like a proof of this.



(The only wat to prove this I can think of would be constructing a family of manifolds parametrized by $mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ such that for a given $p in mathbb{R}^{n^2 (n^2 - 1)/12}$ the corresponding manifold has the curvature tensor corresponding to $p$ at some point.)







differential-geometry riemannian-geometry tensors curvature general-relativity






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 12 at 11:11







0x539

















asked Dec 30 '18 at 0:17









0x5390x539

1,470518




1,470518












  • $begingroup$
    lower bound on what ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr on the degrees of freedom.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:25










  • $begingroup$
    Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:08










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 16 at 11:12


















  • $begingroup$
    lower bound on what ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr on the degrees of freedom.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 2:25










  • $begingroup$
    Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:08










  • $begingroup$
    @Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Dec 30 '18 at 3:19






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 16 at 11:12
















$begingroup$
lower bound on what ?
$endgroup$
– Amr
Dec 30 '18 at 2:11




$begingroup$
lower bound on what ?
$endgroup$
– Amr
Dec 30 '18 at 2:11












$begingroup$
@Amr on the degrees of freedom.
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Dec 30 '18 at 2:25




$begingroup$
@Amr on the degrees of freedom.
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Dec 30 '18 at 2:25












$begingroup$
Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
$endgroup$
– Amr
Dec 30 '18 at 3:08




$begingroup$
Wouldn't $frac{1}{12}n^2(n^2-1)$ count as a lower bound already ?
$endgroup$
– Amr
Dec 30 '18 at 3:08












$begingroup$
@Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Dec 30 '18 at 3:19




$begingroup$
@Amr Yes it is, but i want to know why.
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Dec 30 '18 at 3:19




2




2




$begingroup$
Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 16 at 11:12




$begingroup$
Duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/2235253/… (no vote to close due to open bounty)
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 16 at 11:12










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