Testing convergence of improper integral with a variable a
$begingroup$
I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
$$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
I have tried the following:
$left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$
and:
$frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.
So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
$frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
$int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.
However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?
convergence improper-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
$$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
I have tried the following:
$left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$
and:
$frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.
So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
$frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
$int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.
However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?
convergence improper-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
$$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
I have tried the following:
$left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$
and:
$frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.
So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
$frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
$int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.
However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?
convergence improper-integrals
$endgroup$
I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
$$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
I have tried the following:
$left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$
and:
$frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.
So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
$frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
$int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.
However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?
convergence improper-integrals
convergence improper-integrals
edited Dec 1 '18 at 20:17
user376343
3,7883828
3,7883828
asked Dec 1 '18 at 19:55
Renze SutersRenze Suters
11
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