Prove $V$ over finite field of $q$ elements can be written as union of $q + 1$ proper subspaces












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Let $V$ be a vector space (can be finite or infinite) over finite field $K$, such that $dim V > 1$ and $|K| = q < infty$. Prove there exist proper subspaces $V_0, dots, V_q$ such that $V = V_0 cup dots cup V_q$. I have no idea where to start from.






linear-algebra combinatorics vector-spaces finite-fields







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  • 5




    i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27








  • 3




    Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
    – darij grinberg
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:23
















0














Let $V$ be a vector space (can be finite or infinite) over finite field $K$, such that $dim V > 1$ and $|K| = q < infty$. Prove there exist proper subspaces $V_0, dots, V_q$ such that $V = V_0 cup dots cup V_q$. I have no idea where to start from.






linear-algebra combinatorics vector-spaces finite-fields







share|cite|improve this question




















  • 5




    i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27








  • 3




    Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
    – darij grinberg
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:23














0












0








0







Let $V$ be a vector space (can be finite or infinite) over finite field $K$, such that $dim V > 1$ and $|K| = q < infty$. Prove there exist proper subspaces $V_0, dots, V_q$ such that $V = V_0 cup dots cup V_q$. I have no idea where to start from.






linear-algebra combinatorics vector-spaces finite-fields







share|cite|improve this question















Let $V$ be a vector space (can be finite or infinite) over finite field $K$, such that $dim V > 1$ and $|K| = q < infty$. Prove there exist proper subspaces $V_0, dots, V_q$ such that $V = V_0 cup dots cup V_q$. I have no idea where to start from.






linear-algebra combinatorics vector-spaces finite-fields




linear-algebra combinatorics vector-spaces finite-fields






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 23 '18 at 12:48







user593746

















asked Nov 23 '18 at 7:24









user4201961user4201961

699411




699411








  • 5




    i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27








  • 3




    Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
    – darij grinberg
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:23














  • 5




    i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27








  • 3




    Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
    – darij grinberg
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:23








5




5




i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 23 '18 at 7:27






i'd do it first for $dim V=2$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 23 '18 at 7:27






3




3




Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 '18 at 18:23




Pick two linearly independent maps $a, b : V to K$. For each $k in K$, let $V_k = left{v in V mid aleft(vright) = k bleft(vright)right}$. Also, let $V_infty = left{v in V mid bleft(vright) = 0 right}$. Then, $V = V_infty cup bigcup_{k in K} V_k$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 '18 at 18:23










2 Answers
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3















We claim that if $V$ is a vector space over a finite field $K$ of order $q$ such that $dim V>1$, and $m$ is a non-negative integer, then $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces of $V$ if and only if $mgeq q+1$. (From the proof below, it also follows that if $K$ is not finite, then there is no way to cover a vector space $V$ over $K$ with $dim V>1$ by finitely many proper subspaces.)




First suppose that $mgeq q+1$. It suffices to assume that $m=q+1$. Pick a basis $mathcal{B}$ of $V$. Let $a,binmathcal{B}$ be two distinct elements (noting that $|mathcal{B}|>1$ since $dim V>1$). For each $kin K$, we define $V_k$ to be the span of ${a+kb}cupbig(mathcal{B}setminus{a,b}big)$, and $U$ is the span of $mathcal{B}setminus{a}$. Show that
$V=Ucup bigcup_{kin K}V_k$.



Conversely, suppose that $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces $W_1,W_2,ldots,W_m$ with $m$ being smallest possible (from the previous paragraph we know $m$ exists, so taking the smallest one is possible). It is easy to see that $m>1$. By minimality of $m$, for any $i$, we have $W_inotsubseteq bigcup_{jneq i}W_j$.



Take $uin W_1setminusbigcup_{jneq1}W_j$ and $vin W_2setminusbigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$. Since $u+svin V$ for all $sin K$ such that $sneq 0$, we must have $u+svin W_j$ for some $j$. We claim that the assignment $sin Ksetminus{0}$ to the smallest $j$ such that $u+svin W_j$ is an injective function from $Ksetminus{0}$ to ${3,4,ldots,m}$. From here, it follows that $$q-1=big|Ksetminus{0}big|leq big|{3,4,ldots,m}big|=m-2,$$
establishing our claim.



Now, to prove the assertion in the previous paragraph, we first note that $u+svnotin W_1$ and $u+svnotin W_2$ for $sne 0$. If $u+svin W_1$, then $v=s^{-1}big((u+sv)-ubig)in W_1$ since $uin W_1$, which is a contradiction. If $u+svin W_2$, then $u=(u+sv)-svin W_2$ since $vin W_2$, which is also a contradiction. So, $u+svin W_j$ for some $jin{3,4,ldots,m}$.



Now, suppose that there are two non-zero $s,tin K$ such that $u+sv$ and $u+tv$ are in the same $W_i$, where $iin{3,4,ldots,m}$. Then,
$$v=(s-t)^{-1}big((u+sv)-(u+tv)big)in W_i.$$
But $vin W_2setminus bigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$, so we have another contradiction. The assertion is now proven.






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    4














    Hint: If $(x_1,x_2,ldots)in V$ then either $x_1=0$ or there exists $cin K$ with $x_2=cx_1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      active

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      3















      We claim that if $V$ is a vector space over a finite field $K$ of order $q$ such that $dim V>1$, and $m$ is a non-negative integer, then $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces of $V$ if and only if $mgeq q+1$. (From the proof below, it also follows that if $K$ is not finite, then there is no way to cover a vector space $V$ over $K$ with $dim V>1$ by finitely many proper subspaces.)




      First suppose that $mgeq q+1$. It suffices to assume that $m=q+1$. Pick a basis $mathcal{B}$ of $V$. Let $a,binmathcal{B}$ be two distinct elements (noting that $|mathcal{B}|>1$ since $dim V>1$). For each $kin K$, we define $V_k$ to be the span of ${a+kb}cupbig(mathcal{B}setminus{a,b}big)$, and $U$ is the span of $mathcal{B}setminus{a}$. Show that
      $V=Ucup bigcup_{kin K}V_k$.



      Conversely, suppose that $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces $W_1,W_2,ldots,W_m$ with $m$ being smallest possible (from the previous paragraph we know $m$ exists, so taking the smallest one is possible). It is easy to see that $m>1$. By minimality of $m$, for any $i$, we have $W_inotsubseteq bigcup_{jneq i}W_j$.



      Take $uin W_1setminusbigcup_{jneq1}W_j$ and $vin W_2setminusbigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$. Since $u+svin V$ for all $sin K$ such that $sneq 0$, we must have $u+svin W_j$ for some $j$. We claim that the assignment $sin Ksetminus{0}$ to the smallest $j$ such that $u+svin W_j$ is an injective function from $Ksetminus{0}$ to ${3,4,ldots,m}$. From here, it follows that $$q-1=big|Ksetminus{0}big|leq big|{3,4,ldots,m}big|=m-2,$$
      establishing our claim.



      Now, to prove the assertion in the previous paragraph, we first note that $u+svnotin W_1$ and $u+svnotin W_2$ for $sne 0$. If $u+svin W_1$, then $v=s^{-1}big((u+sv)-ubig)in W_1$ since $uin W_1$, which is a contradiction. If $u+svin W_2$, then $u=(u+sv)-svin W_2$ since $vin W_2$, which is also a contradiction. So, $u+svin W_j$ for some $jin{3,4,ldots,m}$.



      Now, suppose that there are two non-zero $s,tin K$ such that $u+sv$ and $u+tv$ are in the same $W_i$, where $iin{3,4,ldots,m}$. Then,
      $$v=(s-t)^{-1}big((u+sv)-(u+tv)big)in W_i.$$
      But $vin W_2setminus bigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$, so we have another contradiction. The assertion is now proven.






      share|cite|improve this answer




























        3















        We claim that if $V$ is a vector space over a finite field $K$ of order $q$ such that $dim V>1$, and $m$ is a non-negative integer, then $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces of $V$ if and only if $mgeq q+1$. (From the proof below, it also follows that if $K$ is not finite, then there is no way to cover a vector space $V$ over $K$ with $dim V>1$ by finitely many proper subspaces.)




        First suppose that $mgeq q+1$. It suffices to assume that $m=q+1$. Pick a basis $mathcal{B}$ of $V$. Let $a,binmathcal{B}$ be two distinct elements (noting that $|mathcal{B}|>1$ since $dim V>1$). For each $kin K$, we define $V_k$ to be the span of ${a+kb}cupbig(mathcal{B}setminus{a,b}big)$, and $U$ is the span of $mathcal{B}setminus{a}$. Show that
        $V=Ucup bigcup_{kin K}V_k$.



        Conversely, suppose that $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces $W_1,W_2,ldots,W_m$ with $m$ being smallest possible (from the previous paragraph we know $m$ exists, so taking the smallest one is possible). It is easy to see that $m>1$. By minimality of $m$, for any $i$, we have $W_inotsubseteq bigcup_{jneq i}W_j$.



        Take $uin W_1setminusbigcup_{jneq1}W_j$ and $vin W_2setminusbigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$. Since $u+svin V$ for all $sin K$ such that $sneq 0$, we must have $u+svin W_j$ for some $j$. We claim that the assignment $sin Ksetminus{0}$ to the smallest $j$ such that $u+svin W_j$ is an injective function from $Ksetminus{0}$ to ${3,4,ldots,m}$. From here, it follows that $$q-1=big|Ksetminus{0}big|leq big|{3,4,ldots,m}big|=m-2,$$
        establishing our claim.



        Now, to prove the assertion in the previous paragraph, we first note that $u+svnotin W_1$ and $u+svnotin W_2$ for $sne 0$. If $u+svin W_1$, then $v=s^{-1}big((u+sv)-ubig)in W_1$ since $uin W_1$, which is a contradiction. If $u+svin W_2$, then $u=(u+sv)-svin W_2$ since $vin W_2$, which is also a contradiction. So, $u+svin W_j$ for some $jin{3,4,ldots,m}$.



        Now, suppose that there are two non-zero $s,tin K$ such that $u+sv$ and $u+tv$ are in the same $W_i$, where $iin{3,4,ldots,m}$. Then,
        $$v=(s-t)^{-1}big((u+sv)-(u+tv)big)in W_i.$$
        But $vin W_2setminus bigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$, so we have another contradiction. The assertion is now proven.






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          3












          3








          3







          We claim that if $V$ is a vector space over a finite field $K$ of order $q$ such that $dim V>1$, and $m$ is a non-negative integer, then $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces of $V$ if and only if $mgeq q+1$. (From the proof below, it also follows that if $K$ is not finite, then there is no way to cover a vector space $V$ over $K$ with $dim V>1$ by finitely many proper subspaces.)




          First suppose that $mgeq q+1$. It suffices to assume that $m=q+1$. Pick a basis $mathcal{B}$ of $V$. Let $a,binmathcal{B}$ be two distinct elements (noting that $|mathcal{B}|>1$ since $dim V>1$). For each $kin K$, we define $V_k$ to be the span of ${a+kb}cupbig(mathcal{B}setminus{a,b}big)$, and $U$ is the span of $mathcal{B}setminus{a}$. Show that
          $V=Ucup bigcup_{kin K}V_k$.



          Conversely, suppose that $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces $W_1,W_2,ldots,W_m$ with $m$ being smallest possible (from the previous paragraph we know $m$ exists, so taking the smallest one is possible). It is easy to see that $m>1$. By minimality of $m$, for any $i$, we have $W_inotsubseteq bigcup_{jneq i}W_j$.



          Take $uin W_1setminusbigcup_{jneq1}W_j$ and $vin W_2setminusbigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$. Since $u+svin V$ for all $sin K$ such that $sneq 0$, we must have $u+svin W_j$ for some $j$. We claim that the assignment $sin Ksetminus{0}$ to the smallest $j$ such that $u+svin W_j$ is an injective function from $Ksetminus{0}$ to ${3,4,ldots,m}$. From here, it follows that $$q-1=big|Ksetminus{0}big|leq big|{3,4,ldots,m}big|=m-2,$$
          establishing our claim.



          Now, to prove the assertion in the previous paragraph, we first note that $u+svnotin W_1$ and $u+svnotin W_2$ for $sne 0$. If $u+svin W_1$, then $v=s^{-1}big((u+sv)-ubig)in W_1$ since $uin W_1$, which is a contradiction. If $u+svin W_2$, then $u=(u+sv)-svin W_2$ since $vin W_2$, which is also a contradiction. So, $u+svin W_j$ for some $jin{3,4,ldots,m}$.



          Now, suppose that there are two non-zero $s,tin K$ such that $u+sv$ and $u+tv$ are in the same $W_i$, where $iin{3,4,ldots,m}$. Then,
          $$v=(s-t)^{-1}big((u+sv)-(u+tv)big)in W_i.$$
          But $vin W_2setminus bigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$, so we have another contradiction. The assertion is now proven.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          We claim that if $V$ is a vector space over a finite field $K$ of order $q$ such that $dim V>1$, and $m$ is a non-negative integer, then $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces of $V$ if and only if $mgeq q+1$. (From the proof below, it also follows that if $K$ is not finite, then there is no way to cover a vector space $V$ over $K$ with $dim V>1$ by finitely many proper subspaces.)




          First suppose that $mgeq q+1$. It suffices to assume that $m=q+1$. Pick a basis $mathcal{B}$ of $V$. Let $a,binmathcal{B}$ be two distinct elements (noting that $|mathcal{B}|>1$ since $dim V>1$). For each $kin K$, we define $V_k$ to be the span of ${a+kb}cupbig(mathcal{B}setminus{a,b}big)$, and $U$ is the span of $mathcal{B}setminus{a}$. Show that
          $V=Ucup bigcup_{kin K}V_k$.



          Conversely, suppose that $V$ can be written as a union of $m$ proper subspaces $W_1,W_2,ldots,W_m$ with $m$ being smallest possible (from the previous paragraph we know $m$ exists, so taking the smallest one is possible). It is easy to see that $m>1$. By minimality of $m$, for any $i$, we have $W_inotsubseteq bigcup_{jneq i}W_j$.



          Take $uin W_1setminusbigcup_{jneq1}W_j$ and $vin W_2setminusbigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$. Since $u+svin V$ for all $sin K$ such that $sneq 0$, we must have $u+svin W_j$ for some $j$. We claim that the assignment $sin Ksetminus{0}$ to the smallest $j$ such that $u+svin W_j$ is an injective function from $Ksetminus{0}$ to ${3,4,ldots,m}$. From here, it follows that $$q-1=big|Ksetminus{0}big|leq big|{3,4,ldots,m}big|=m-2,$$
          establishing our claim.



          Now, to prove the assertion in the previous paragraph, we first note that $u+svnotin W_1$ and $u+svnotin W_2$ for $sne 0$. If $u+svin W_1$, then $v=s^{-1}big((u+sv)-ubig)in W_1$ since $uin W_1$, which is a contradiction. If $u+svin W_2$, then $u=(u+sv)-svin W_2$ since $vin W_2$, which is also a contradiction. So, $u+svin W_j$ for some $jin{3,4,ldots,m}$.



          Now, suppose that there are two non-zero $s,tin K$ such that $u+sv$ and $u+tv$ are in the same $W_i$, where $iin{3,4,ldots,m}$. Then,
          $$v=(s-t)^{-1}big((u+sv)-(u+tv)big)in W_i.$$
          But $vin W_2setminus bigcup_{jneq 2}W_j$, so we have another contradiction. The assertion is now proven.







          share|cite|improve this answer














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          edited Nov 23 '18 at 16:00

























          answered Nov 23 '18 at 12:29







          user593746






























              4














              Hint: If $(x_1,x_2,ldots)in V$ then either $x_1=0$ or there exists $cin K$ with $x_2=cx_1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                4














                Hint: If $(x_1,x_2,ldots)in V$ then either $x_1=0$ or there exists $cin K$ with $x_2=cx_1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  4












                  4








                  4






                  Hint: If $(x_1,x_2,ldots)in V$ then either $x_1=0$ or there exists $cin K$ with $x_2=cx_1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Hint: If $(x_1,x_2,ldots)in V$ then either $x_1=0$ or there exists $cin K$ with $x_2=cx_1$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 23 '18 at 7:43









                  Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

                  276k21269496




                  276k21269496






























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