Do I have to suppose the function to be surjective?
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2
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This is not a question on how to prove the result
In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:
Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:
i) $A$ is a field
ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$
iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective
The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".
I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?
abstract-algebra
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
This is not a question on how to prove the result
In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:
Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:
i) $A$ is a field
ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$
iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective
The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".
I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?
abstract-algebra
2
Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
This is not a question on how to prove the result
In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:
Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:
i) $A$ is a field
ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$
iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective
The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".
I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?
abstract-algebra
This is not a question on how to prove the result
In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:
Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:
i) $A$ is a field
ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$
iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective
The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".
I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?
abstract-algebra
abstract-algebra
asked Nov 16 at 11:03
Pedro
510212
510212
2
Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08
add a comment |
2
Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08
2
2
Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08
Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.
Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.
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0
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Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.
Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.
Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.
Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.
Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.
Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.
edited Nov 16 at 13:42
answered Nov 16 at 12:26
Cameron Buie
84.6k771155
84.6k771155
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add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.
Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.
answered Nov 16 at 11:29
Anupam
2,3651823
2,3651823
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
add a comment |
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
1
1
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
– Berci
Nov 16 at 11:35
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
– Anupam
Nov 16 at 12:21
add a comment |
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Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08