Do I have to suppose the function to be surjective?











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This is not a question on how to prove the result



In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:



Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:



i) $A$ is a field



ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$



iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective



The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".



I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?










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  • 2




    Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 16 at 11:08

















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












This is not a question on how to prove the result



In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:



Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:



i) $A$ is a field



ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$



iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective



The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".



I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 16 at 11:08















up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











This is not a question on how to prove the result



In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:



Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:



i) $A$ is a field



ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$



iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective



The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".



I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?










share|cite|improve this question













This is not a question on how to prove the result



In proposition 1.2. of Atiyah's Introduction to Conmutative Algebra it says:



Let $A$ be a non trivial ring. The following are equivalent:



i) $A$ is a field



ii) $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A$



iii) Every homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$ is injective



The problem here is with the translation. The spanish edition says "homomorfismo de $A$ en un anillo no nulo $B$" which may be understood as "homomorphism from $A$ onto a non trivial ring $B$" or "homomorphism from $A$ to a non trivial ring $B$".



I could only prove the proposition supposing the "onto" part and the book also does so. Does the english edition say "onto"?







abstract-algebra






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asked Nov 16 at 11:03









Pedro

510212




510212








  • 2




    Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 16 at 11:08
















  • 2




    Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 16 at 11:08










2




2




Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08






Onto is not necessary. The proof considers the kernel of the homomorphism.
– Michael Burr
Nov 16 at 11:08












2 Answers
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Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.



Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.






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    down vote













    Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
      – Berci
      Nov 16 at 11:35










    • OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
      – Anupam
      Nov 16 at 12:21











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    2 Answers
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    accepted










    Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.



    Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.



      Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.



        Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Surjectivity is immaterial, in this case. Since ring homomorphisms are assumed to send $1$ to $1,$ then $1$ cannot be in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, if $(0)$ and $(1)$ are the only ideals of $A,$ then $(0)$ must be the kernel of the homomorphism, and so it is injective.



        Added: We may assume surjectivity without loss of generality, and it sounds like Atiyah does. Suppose all surjective homomorphisms from $A$ are injective. Now take an arbitrary homomorphism $f:Ato B,$ for some ring $B.$ The image of $A$ under $f$ is a subring of $B,$ say $C.$ Then $g:Ato C$ defined by $g(x):=f(x)$ for all $xin A$ is a surjective homomorphism $Ato C.$ Thus, $g$ is injective by hypothesis, and so $f$ is injective, as desired.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 16 at 13:42

























        answered Nov 16 at 12:26









        Cameron Buie

        84.6k771155




        84.6k771155






















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
              – Berci
              Nov 16 at 11:35










            • OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
              – Anupam
              Nov 16 at 12:21















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
              – Berci
              Nov 16 at 11:35










            • OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
              – Anupam
              Nov 16 at 12:21













            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Unless you assume a nontrivial homomorphism, it must be mentioned onto. Because every homomorphism from a field to a ring is either one one or maps everything to 0.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 16 at 11:29









            Anupam

            2,3651823




            2,3651823








            • 1




              Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
              – Berci
              Nov 16 at 11:35










            • OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
              – Anupam
              Nov 16 at 12:21














            • 1




              Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
              – Berci
              Nov 16 at 11:35










            • OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
              – Anupam
              Nov 16 at 12:21








            1




            1




            Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
            – Berci
            Nov 16 at 11:35




            Well, if $1$ is included in the ring structure, a homomorphism should also preserve it.
            – Berci
            Nov 16 at 11:35












            OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
            – Anupam
            Nov 16 at 12:21




            OK it is assumed in Atiya's book. I forgot. But many authors don't assume it.
            – Anupam
            Nov 16 at 12:21


















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