Quest for a non-inductive proof of the addition theorem of probability.











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The addition theorem of probability states that:
$$P(A_1cup A_2cup … cup A_n) = sum P(A_i) - sum P(A_icap A_j) + sum P(A_icap A_jcap A_k) - … + (-1)^nP(A_1cap A_2cap … cap A_n)$$
Although this result is proved using the method of induction (as in the case of most textbooks), can it be proved directly?
The only thing which I see is its structural similarity with the general product of binomials :
$$(1+alpha)(1+beta)……(1+nu) = 1 + (alpha + beta + … + nu) + (alpha beta + ……) + ……… + (alpha beta gamma …nu)$$
However I am unable to get a link between the two. Any help is appreciated.










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  • You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:46












  • Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:53










  • @Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 12:58










  • @Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 13:20















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












The addition theorem of probability states that:
$$P(A_1cup A_2cup … cup A_n) = sum P(A_i) - sum P(A_icap A_j) + sum P(A_icap A_jcap A_k) - … + (-1)^nP(A_1cap A_2cap … cap A_n)$$
Although this result is proved using the method of induction (as in the case of most textbooks), can it be proved directly?
The only thing which I see is its structural similarity with the general product of binomials :
$$(1+alpha)(1+beta)……(1+nu) = 1 + (alpha + beta + … + nu) + (alpha beta + ……) + ……… + (alpha beta gamma …nu)$$
However I am unable to get a link between the two. Any help is appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:46












  • Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:53










  • @Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 12:58










  • @Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 13:20













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











The addition theorem of probability states that:
$$P(A_1cup A_2cup … cup A_n) = sum P(A_i) - sum P(A_icap A_j) + sum P(A_icap A_jcap A_k) - … + (-1)^nP(A_1cap A_2cap … cap A_n)$$
Although this result is proved using the method of induction (as in the case of most textbooks), can it be proved directly?
The only thing which I see is its structural similarity with the general product of binomials :
$$(1+alpha)(1+beta)……(1+nu) = 1 + (alpha + beta + … + nu) + (alpha beta + ……) + ……… + (alpha beta gamma …nu)$$
However I am unable to get a link between the two. Any help is appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question















The addition theorem of probability states that:
$$P(A_1cup A_2cup … cup A_n) = sum P(A_i) - sum P(A_icap A_j) + sum P(A_icap A_jcap A_k) - … + (-1)^nP(A_1cap A_2cap … cap A_n)$$
Although this result is proved using the method of induction (as in the case of most textbooks), can it be proved directly?
The only thing which I see is its structural similarity with the general product of binomials :
$$(1+alpha)(1+beta)……(1+nu) = 1 + (alpha + beta + … + nu) + (alpha beta + ……) + ……… + (alpha beta gamma …nu)$$
However I am unable to get a link between the two. Any help is appreciated.







probability






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edited Nov 16 at 13:15









Asaf Karagila

300k32421751




300k32421751










asked Nov 16 at 12:42









Awe Kumar Jha

3029




3029












  • You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:46












  • Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:53










  • @Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 12:58










  • @Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 13:20


















  • You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:46












  • Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
    – Stockfish
    Nov 16 at 12:53










  • @Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 12:58










  • @Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
    – Awe Kumar Jha
    Nov 16 at 13:20
















You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
– Stockfish
Nov 16 at 12:46






You could decompose the union into disjoint sets. For instance, $A cup B = (A cap B) cup (A cap B^c) cup (A^c cap B)$. Now rearrange $P(A) = P(A cap B) + P(A cap B^c)$.
– Stockfish
Nov 16 at 12:46














Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
– Stockfish
Nov 16 at 12:53




Of course, that's not really an answer to your question ...
– Stockfish
Nov 16 at 12:53












@Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
– Awe Kumar Jha
Nov 16 at 12:58




@Stockfish, I think it may involve polynomial fields and other concepts of linear algebra, when we are looking for the decomposition of the general union operator and further rearrangement.
– Awe Kumar Jha
Nov 16 at 12:58












@Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
– Awe Kumar Jha
Nov 16 at 13:20




@Tusky, Ah, that was very helpful.
– Awe Kumar Jha
Nov 16 at 13:20










1 Answer
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1
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Your very statement:



$$ P(A1∪A2∪…∪An)=∑P(Ai)−∑P(Ai∩Aj)+∑P(Ai∩Aj∩Ak)−…+(−1)nP(A1∩A2∩…∩An) $$



is what we you arrive at from what we call the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle.



Since you are looking for a non-induction based proof, there exists a proof using the Binomial Theorem here and an algebraic proof using indicator functions over here.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Your very statement:



    $$ P(A1∪A2∪…∪An)=∑P(Ai)−∑P(Ai∩Aj)+∑P(Ai∩Aj∩Ak)−…+(−1)nP(A1∩A2∩…∩An) $$



    is what we you arrive at from what we call the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle.



    Since you are looking for a non-induction based proof, there exists a proof using the Binomial Theorem here and an algebraic proof using indicator functions over here.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Your very statement:



      $$ P(A1∪A2∪…∪An)=∑P(Ai)−∑P(Ai∩Aj)+∑P(Ai∩Aj∩Ak)−…+(−1)nP(A1∩A2∩…∩An) $$



      is what we you arrive at from what we call the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle.



      Since you are looking for a non-induction based proof, there exists a proof using the Binomial Theorem here and an algebraic proof using indicator functions over here.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        Your very statement:



        $$ P(A1∪A2∪…∪An)=∑P(Ai)−∑P(Ai∩Aj)+∑P(Ai∩Aj∩Ak)−…+(−1)nP(A1∩A2∩…∩An) $$



        is what we you arrive at from what we call the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle.



        Since you are looking for a non-induction based proof, there exists a proof using the Binomial Theorem here and an algebraic proof using indicator functions over here.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Your very statement:



        $$ P(A1∪A2∪…∪An)=∑P(Ai)−∑P(Ai∩Aj)+∑P(Ai∩Aj∩Ak)−…+(−1)nP(A1∩A2∩…∩An) $$



        is what we you arrive at from what we call the Inclusion-Exclusion Principle.



        Since you are looking for a non-induction based proof, there exists a proof using the Binomial Theorem here and an algebraic proof using indicator functions over here.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 16 at 13:34









        Tusky

        632618




        632618






























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