Pointwise convergence when $f_n$ is defined as sum of other functions












0














I have this problem:
Let $f: [0,1] longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Now, define:
$$ f_n (x) = sum_{i=0}^{n} {n choose i}x^{i}(1-x)^{n-i} f( frac{i}{n})$$
Show that $f_n$ converges pointwise to f.



I worked (succesfully) the case in which $f$ is the identity map. However, I cant't handle the general case. Could someone give me pointers in how to deal with this kind of problem ? (when the functions in the sequence not only depends on $n$ and $x$, but also in some other index. Thanks in advance!



PD: This problem was left by my teacher to prepare the third exam in my class of probability theory.(the last thing we saw was the Law of large numbers). So maybe there is a natural way of attacking this problem using only probability theory but (honestly) I don't see how.










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  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:45










  • I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
    – JuanuPE
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:53
















0














I have this problem:
Let $f: [0,1] longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Now, define:
$$ f_n (x) = sum_{i=0}^{n} {n choose i}x^{i}(1-x)^{n-i} f( frac{i}{n})$$
Show that $f_n$ converges pointwise to f.



I worked (succesfully) the case in which $f$ is the identity map. However, I cant't handle the general case. Could someone give me pointers in how to deal with this kind of problem ? (when the functions in the sequence not only depends on $n$ and $x$, but also in some other index. Thanks in advance!



PD: This problem was left by my teacher to prepare the third exam in my class of probability theory.(the last thing we saw was the Law of large numbers). So maybe there is a natural way of attacking this problem using only probability theory but (honestly) I don't see how.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:45










  • I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
    – JuanuPE
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:53














0












0








0







I have this problem:
Let $f: [0,1] longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Now, define:
$$ f_n (x) = sum_{i=0}^{n} {n choose i}x^{i}(1-x)^{n-i} f( frac{i}{n})$$
Show that $f_n$ converges pointwise to f.



I worked (succesfully) the case in which $f$ is the identity map. However, I cant't handle the general case. Could someone give me pointers in how to deal with this kind of problem ? (when the functions in the sequence not only depends on $n$ and $x$, but also in some other index. Thanks in advance!



PD: This problem was left by my teacher to prepare the third exam in my class of probability theory.(the last thing we saw was the Law of large numbers). So maybe there is a natural way of attacking this problem using only probability theory but (honestly) I don't see how.










share|cite|improve this question













I have this problem:
Let $f: [0,1] longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Now, define:
$$ f_n (x) = sum_{i=0}^{n} {n choose i}x^{i}(1-x)^{n-i} f( frac{i}{n})$$
Show that $f_n$ converges pointwise to f.



I worked (succesfully) the case in which $f$ is the identity map. However, I cant't handle the general case. Could someone give me pointers in how to deal with this kind of problem ? (when the functions in the sequence not only depends on $n$ and $x$, but also in some other index. Thanks in advance!



PD: This problem was left by my teacher to prepare the third exam in my class of probability theory.(the last thing we saw was the Law of large numbers). So maybe there is a natural way of attacking this problem using only probability theory but (honestly) I don't see how.







calculus real-analysis probability-theory






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asked Nov 21 '18 at 3:43









JuanuPE

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82








  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:45










  • I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
    – JuanuPE
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:53














  • 1




    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:45










  • I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
    – JuanuPE
    Nov 21 '18 at 3:53








1




1




en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 21 '18 at 3:45




en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 21 '18 at 3:45












I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
– JuanuPE
Nov 21 '18 at 3:53




I see, so it's a famous problem. Thanks a lot!
– JuanuPE
Nov 21 '18 at 3:53










1 Answer
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We could also take i.i.d. random variables $(X_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ with probability $P(X_i=0) = (1-x)$ and $P(X_i=1) = x$. Let now $S_n = sum_{k=1}^n$ X_i. By the strong law of large numbers we have $$frac{1}{n} S_n rightarrow x$$
$mathbb{P}$-almost sure. This also implies convergence in probablity. Since $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]$, we see that
$$sum_{k=0}^n binom{n}{k} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} f(k/n) = mathbb{E}[f(S_n/n)] rightarrow mathbb{E}[f(x)] = f(x).$$
This gives pointwise convergence. In the proof of the Wikipedia article - see here - is shown that this convergence is uniformly in x. (This proves the famous Weierstraß theorem on the approximation of functions $C[0,1]$ by polynomials.)






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    We could also take i.i.d. random variables $(X_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ with probability $P(X_i=0) = (1-x)$ and $P(X_i=1) = x$. Let now $S_n = sum_{k=1}^n$ X_i. By the strong law of large numbers we have $$frac{1}{n} S_n rightarrow x$$
    $mathbb{P}$-almost sure. This also implies convergence in probablity. Since $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]$, we see that
    $$sum_{k=0}^n binom{n}{k} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} f(k/n) = mathbb{E}[f(S_n/n)] rightarrow mathbb{E}[f(x)] = f(x).$$
    This gives pointwise convergence. In the proof of the Wikipedia article - see here - is shown that this convergence is uniformly in x. (This proves the famous Weierstraß theorem on the approximation of functions $C[0,1]$ by polynomials.)






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      We could also take i.i.d. random variables $(X_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ with probability $P(X_i=0) = (1-x)$ and $P(X_i=1) = x$. Let now $S_n = sum_{k=1}^n$ X_i. By the strong law of large numbers we have $$frac{1}{n} S_n rightarrow x$$
      $mathbb{P}$-almost sure. This also implies convergence in probablity. Since $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]$, we see that
      $$sum_{k=0}^n binom{n}{k} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} f(k/n) = mathbb{E}[f(S_n/n)] rightarrow mathbb{E}[f(x)] = f(x).$$
      This gives pointwise convergence. In the proof of the Wikipedia article - see here - is shown that this convergence is uniformly in x. (This proves the famous Weierstraß theorem on the approximation of functions $C[0,1]$ by polynomials.)






      share|cite|improve this answer
























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        We could also take i.i.d. random variables $(X_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ with probability $P(X_i=0) = (1-x)$ and $P(X_i=1) = x$. Let now $S_n = sum_{k=1}^n$ X_i. By the strong law of large numbers we have $$frac{1}{n} S_n rightarrow x$$
        $mathbb{P}$-almost sure. This also implies convergence in probablity. Since $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]$, we see that
        $$sum_{k=0}^n binom{n}{k} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} f(k/n) = mathbb{E}[f(S_n/n)] rightarrow mathbb{E}[f(x)] = f(x).$$
        This gives pointwise convergence. In the proof of the Wikipedia article - see here - is shown that this convergence is uniformly in x. (This proves the famous Weierstraß theorem on the approximation of functions $C[0,1]$ by polynomials.)






        share|cite|improve this answer












        We could also take i.i.d. random variables $(X_i)_{i in mathbb{N}}$ with probability $P(X_i=0) = (1-x)$ and $P(X_i=1) = x$. Let now $S_n = sum_{k=1}^n$ X_i. By the strong law of large numbers we have $$frac{1}{n} S_n rightarrow x$$
        $mathbb{P}$-almost sure. This also implies convergence in probablity. Since $f$ is bounded on $[0,1]$, we see that
        $$sum_{k=0}^n binom{n}{k} x^k (1-x)^{n-k} f(k/n) = mathbb{E}[f(S_n/n)] rightarrow mathbb{E}[f(x)] = f(x).$$
        This gives pointwise convergence. In the proof of the Wikipedia article - see here - is shown that this convergence is uniformly in x. (This proves the famous Weierstraß theorem on the approximation of functions $C[0,1]$ by polynomials.)







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        answered Nov 21 '18 at 7:51









        p4sch

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