Positive definite matrix implies the **infimum** of eigenvalues are positive?












0












$begingroup$


Suppose $P(x): mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^{n times n}$ is always a positive definite matrix, does it imply that the infimum (over $mathbb{R}$) of the minimum eigenvalue of $P(x)$ is always positive?, that is, $inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0$ In a mathematical way:



Is the following conclusion correct?
begin{equation}
forall x in mathbb{R},;P(x) succ 0 implies inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0
end{equation}



Please be careful with the infimum.



Please go to the other similar question here, which is exactly the real (and more difficult in my opinion) question that I want to ask.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $P(x): mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^{n times n}$ is always a positive definite matrix, does it imply that the infimum (over $mathbb{R}$) of the minimum eigenvalue of $P(x)$ is always positive?, that is, $inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0$ In a mathematical way:



    Is the following conclusion correct?
    begin{equation}
    forall x in mathbb{R},;P(x) succ 0 implies inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0
    end{equation}



    Please be careful with the infimum.



    Please go to the other similar question here, which is exactly the real (and more difficult in my opinion) question that I want to ask.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $P(x): mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^{n times n}$ is always a positive definite matrix, does it imply that the infimum (over $mathbb{R}$) of the minimum eigenvalue of $P(x)$ is always positive?, that is, $inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0$ In a mathematical way:



      Is the following conclusion correct?
      begin{equation}
      forall x in mathbb{R},;P(x) succ 0 implies inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0
      end{equation}



      Please be careful with the infimum.



      Please go to the other similar question here, which is exactly the real (and more difficult in my opinion) question that I want to ask.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose $P(x): mathbb{R} to mathbb{R}^{n times n}$ is always a positive definite matrix, does it imply that the infimum (over $mathbb{R}$) of the minimum eigenvalue of $P(x)$ is always positive?, that is, $inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0$ In a mathematical way:



      Is the following conclusion correct?
      begin{equation}
      forall x in mathbb{R},;P(x) succ 0 implies inf_{x in mathbb{R}} {lambda_{{rm min}}(P(x)) } > 0
      end{equation}



      Please be careful with the infimum.



      Please go to the other similar question here, which is exactly the real (and more difficult in my opinion) question that I want to ask.







      real-analysis linear-algebra matrices supremum-and-infimum positive-definite






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      edited Dec 7 '18 at 11:09







      winston

















      asked Dec 7 '18 at 10:53









      winstonwinston

      522318




      522318






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          No. Consider $n=1$ and $P(x)=e^x$ or in general, $P(x)=e^{xI_n}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:59










          • $begingroup$
            @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:00












          • $begingroup$
            Yes,you are right.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:07













          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          No. Consider $n=1$ and $P(x)=e^x$ or in general, $P(x)=e^{xI_n}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:59










          • $begingroup$
            @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:00












          • $begingroup$
            Yes,you are right.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:07


















          1












          $begingroup$

          No. Consider $n=1$ and $P(x)=e^x$ or in general, $P(x)=e^{xI_n}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:59










          • $begingroup$
            @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:00












          • $begingroup$
            Yes,you are right.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:07
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No. Consider $n=1$ and $P(x)=e^x$ or in general, $P(x)=e^{xI_n}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No. Consider $n=1$ and $P(x)=e^x$ or in general, $P(x)=e^{xI_n}$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 '18 at 10:55









          user1551user1551

          73.5k566129




          73.5k566129












          • $begingroup$
            I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:59










          • $begingroup$
            @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:00












          • $begingroup$
            Yes,you are right.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:07




















          • $begingroup$
            I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:59










          • $begingroup$
            @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:00












          • $begingroup$
            Yes,you are right.
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
            $endgroup$
            – winston
            Dec 7 '18 at 11:07


















          $begingroup$
          I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 10:59




          $begingroup$
          I think it should be $P(x)=e^{-x}$.
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 10:59












          $begingroup$
          @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:00






          $begingroup$
          @winston $e^x$ is OK. It is always positive and $e^xto0$ when $xto-infty$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:00














          $begingroup$
          Yes,you are right.
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:01




          $begingroup$
          Yes,you are right.
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:01












          $begingroup$
          Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:07






          $begingroup$
          Actually my intended question is more difficult. Can you go to this math.stackexchange.com/questions/3029778/…
          $endgroup$
          – winston
          Dec 7 '18 at 11:07




















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