Lp convergence involving powers












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Let $(X,mu)$ be a finite measure space. Suppose $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$ for $pgeq1$. For $qin(0,p]$ does it hold that $$int_Xlvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}},dmuto0quad?$$










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    $begingroup$


    Let $(X,mu)$ be a finite measure space. Suppose $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$ for $pgeq1$. For $qin(0,p]$ does it hold that $$int_Xlvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}},dmuto0quad?$$










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      2












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      2





      $begingroup$


      Let $(X,mu)$ be a finite measure space. Suppose $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$ for $pgeq1$. For $qin(0,p]$ does it hold that $$int_Xlvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}},dmuto0quad?$$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $(X,mu)$ be a finite measure space. Suppose $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$ for $pgeq1$. For $qin(0,p]$ does it hold that $$int_Xlvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}},dmuto0quad?$$







      measure-theory






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      edited May 11 '17 at 13:52







      user375366

















      asked May 11 '17 at 13:34









      user375366user375366

      885138




      885138






















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          Yes. I will assume that we work on a probability space.
          From item 6 of this answer, we know that convergence to $0$ in $mathbb L^1$ of a sequence of random variables $left(X_nright)_{ngeqslant 1}$ is equivalent to its convergence in probability combined with uniform integrability. Define
          $$
          X_n:= lvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}.
          $$

          By the assumption, $f_nto f$ in probability hence by item 3 of this answer,
          $X_nto 0$ in probability. For uniform integrability, we bound $X_n$ using the inequality
          $$
          lvertlvert arvert^q-lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
          leqslant lvertlvert arvert^q+lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
          leqslant 2^{p/q-1}left(lvertlvert arvert^p+lvertlvert brvert^pright).
          $$

          In this way, we are reduced to show the uniform integrability of the sequence $left(lvertlvert f_nrvert^pright)_{ngeqslant 1}$, which is a consequence of $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$.






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            $begingroup$

            Yes. I will assume that we work on a probability space.
            From item 6 of this answer, we know that convergence to $0$ in $mathbb L^1$ of a sequence of random variables $left(X_nright)_{ngeqslant 1}$ is equivalent to its convergence in probability combined with uniform integrability. Define
            $$
            X_n:= lvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}.
            $$

            By the assumption, $f_nto f$ in probability hence by item 3 of this answer,
            $X_nto 0$ in probability. For uniform integrability, we bound $X_n$ using the inequality
            $$
            lvertlvert arvert^q-lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
            leqslant lvertlvert arvert^q+lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
            leqslant 2^{p/q-1}left(lvertlvert arvert^p+lvertlvert brvert^pright).
            $$

            In this way, we are reduced to show the uniform integrability of the sequence $left(lvertlvert f_nrvert^pright)_{ngeqslant 1}$, which is a consequence of $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Yes. I will assume that we work on a probability space.
              From item 6 of this answer, we know that convergence to $0$ in $mathbb L^1$ of a sequence of random variables $left(X_nright)_{ngeqslant 1}$ is equivalent to its convergence in probability combined with uniform integrability. Define
              $$
              X_n:= lvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}.
              $$

              By the assumption, $f_nto f$ in probability hence by item 3 of this answer,
              $X_nto 0$ in probability. For uniform integrability, we bound $X_n$ using the inequality
              $$
              lvertlvert arvert^q-lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
              leqslant lvertlvert arvert^q+lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
              leqslant 2^{p/q-1}left(lvertlvert arvert^p+lvertlvert brvert^pright).
              $$

              In this way, we are reduced to show the uniform integrability of the sequence $left(lvertlvert f_nrvert^pright)_{ngeqslant 1}$, which is a consequence of $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Yes. I will assume that we work on a probability space.
                From item 6 of this answer, we know that convergence to $0$ in $mathbb L^1$ of a sequence of random variables $left(X_nright)_{ngeqslant 1}$ is equivalent to its convergence in probability combined with uniform integrability. Define
                $$
                X_n:= lvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}.
                $$

                By the assumption, $f_nto f$ in probability hence by item 3 of this answer,
                $X_nto 0$ in probability. For uniform integrability, we bound $X_n$ using the inequality
                $$
                lvertlvert arvert^q-lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
                leqslant lvertlvert arvert^q+lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
                leqslant 2^{p/q-1}left(lvertlvert arvert^p+lvertlvert brvert^pright).
                $$

                In this way, we are reduced to show the uniform integrability of the sequence $left(lvertlvert f_nrvert^pright)_{ngeqslant 1}$, which is a consequence of $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Yes. I will assume that we work on a probability space.
                From item 6 of this answer, we know that convergence to $0$ in $mathbb L^1$ of a sequence of random variables $left(X_nright)_{ngeqslant 1}$ is equivalent to its convergence in probability combined with uniform integrability. Define
                $$
                X_n:= lvertlvert f_nrvert^q-lvert frvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}.
                $$

                By the assumption, $f_nto f$ in probability hence by item 3 of this answer,
                $X_nto 0$ in probability. For uniform integrability, we bound $X_n$ using the inequality
                $$
                lvertlvert arvert^q-lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
                leqslant lvertlvert arvert^q+lvert brvert^qrvert^{frac{p}{q}}
                leqslant 2^{p/q-1}left(lvertlvert arvert^p+lvertlvert brvert^pright).
                $$

                In this way, we are reduced to show the uniform integrability of the sequence $left(lvertlvert f_nrvert^pright)_{ngeqslant 1}$, which is a consequence of $int_Xlvert f_n-frvert^p,dmuto0$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



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                answered Dec 11 '18 at 21:01









                Davide GiraudoDavide Giraudo

                128k17156268




                128k17156268






























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