Isomorphism ${1}times mathbb C^*to {1}times mathbb C^*$












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$begingroup$


I am reading a text where I have trouble understanding an argument:



Let $f: mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*to mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*$ an isomorphism, such that $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$.

Further, let $|x|neq 1$.



The following argument is made:
$f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}: {1}times mathbb C^*to {1}times mathbb C^*$ is an isomorphism of linear groups. Therefore $f(1,|x|^2)in {(1,|x|^2),(1,|x|^{-2}}$.





Why should this follow? As far as I see it, the condition $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$ means that $f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}$ comes from an isomorphism $mathbb C^* to mathbb C^*$. But these could map $|x|^2$ to any value. For example the homomorphism could be a rotation.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:35












  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:45










  • $begingroup$
    ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47
















1












$begingroup$


I am reading a text where I have trouble understanding an argument:



Let $f: mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*to mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*$ an isomorphism, such that $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$.

Further, let $|x|neq 1$.



The following argument is made:
$f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}: {1}times mathbb C^*to {1}times mathbb C^*$ is an isomorphism of linear groups. Therefore $f(1,|x|^2)in {(1,|x|^2),(1,|x|^{-2}}$.





Why should this follow? As far as I see it, the condition $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$ means that $f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}$ comes from an isomorphism $mathbb C^* to mathbb C^*$. But these could map $|x|^2$ to any value. For example the homomorphism could be a rotation.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:35












  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:45










  • $begingroup$
    ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am reading a text where I have trouble understanding an argument:



Let $f: mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*to mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*$ an isomorphism, such that $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$.

Further, let $|x|neq 1$.



The following argument is made:
$f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}: {1}times mathbb C^*to {1}times mathbb C^*$ is an isomorphism of linear groups. Therefore $f(1,|x|^2)in {(1,|x|^2),(1,|x|^{-2}}$.





Why should this follow? As far as I see it, the condition $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$ means that $f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}$ comes from an isomorphism $mathbb C^* to mathbb C^*$. But these could map $|x|^2$ to any value. For example the homomorphism could be a rotation.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am reading a text where I have trouble understanding an argument:



Let $f: mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*to mathbb C^*times mathbb C^*$ an isomorphism, such that $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$.

Further, let $|x|neq 1$.



The following argument is made:
$f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}: {1}times mathbb C^*to {1}times mathbb C^*$ is an isomorphism of linear groups. Therefore $f(1,|x|^2)in {(1,|x|^2),(1,|x|^{-2}}$.





Why should this follow? As far as I see it, the condition $f({1}times mathbb C^*)= {1}times mathbb C^*$ means that $f_{{1}times mathbb C^*}$ comes from an isomorphism $mathbb C^* to mathbb C^*$. But these could map $|x|^2$ to any value. For example the homomorphism could be a rotation.







abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups group-homomorphism linear-groups






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 23 '18 at 18:26









J.DoeJ.Doe

214




214








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:35












  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:45










  • $begingroup$
    ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:35












  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:45










  • $begingroup$
    ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
    $endgroup$
    – J.Doe
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47








1




1




$begingroup$
A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Nov 23 '18 at 18:35






$begingroup$
A rotation is not an endomorphism (homomorphism from a group to itself) of the multiplicative group of non-zero complex numbers. Consider that $1$ has to map to $1$, for instance.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Nov 23 '18 at 18:35














$begingroup$
@Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
$endgroup$
– J.Doe
Nov 23 '18 at 18:45




$begingroup$
@Arthur: Oh, you are right. But what about $zmapsto z^k$? If $|k|neq 1$, then stil the claim in the question does not hold?
$endgroup$
– J.Doe
Nov 23 '18 at 18:45












$begingroup$
ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
$endgroup$
– J.Doe
Nov 23 '18 at 18:47




$begingroup$
ah...nevermind, if $|k|neq 1$, then the homomorphism is not injective. But how can I be sure that there is no other possibility?
$endgroup$
– J.Doe
Nov 23 '18 at 18:47










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