Showing that image of a certain linear map is either trivial or a straight line
$begingroup$
From S.L Linear Algebra:
Let $A$ be a non-zero vector in $R^2$. Let $F: mathbb{R}^2
rightarrow W$ be a linear map such that $F(A)=O$. Show that the image
of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
I've taken following theorems from the book to try and construct the answer (proofs of theorems are omitted):
Theorem 3.2. Let $V$ be a vector space. Let $L: V rightarrow W$ be a linear map of $V$ into another space $W$. Let $n$ be the
dimension of $V$, $q$ the dimension of the kernel of $L$, and $s$ the
dimension of the image of $L$. Then $n = q + s$. In other words,
$$dim V= dim operatorname{Ker} L + dimoperatorname{Im } L$$
Answer that I have constructed assumes all possibilities of dimension that kernel might have (due to cardinality, and Theorem 3.2, $dimoperatorname{Ker}F in {0, 1, 2}$ of a linear map $F$).
Possibility 1) $dimoperatorname{Ker} F = 2$
If the dimension of kernel is $2$, that is, image is zero dimensional according to Theorem 3.2 ($dim operatorname{Im} F = dimmathbb{R}^{2} - dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 2 - 2 = 0$), then considering that kernel is a subspace, $mathbb{R}^2 = operatorname{Ker}F$, and therefore $F$ is a zero map having the image of ${0}$.
Possibility 2) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 1$
If kernel is $1$-dimensional, then so is the image according to Theorem 3.2 and thus we have a straight line as the image of $F$, considering that we have one-dimensional image under linear map $F$.
Possibility 3) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F ={0} $ (Presumably impossible)
Kernel can't be zero-dimensional, since it is spanned by two dimensional vectors that are not zero vectors.
Conclusion:
Hence the image of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
Is this answer sufficient and true? My explanation of Possibility 2) concerns me the most, it might not be specific enough.
Thank you!
linear-algebra functions linear-transformations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
From S.L Linear Algebra:
Let $A$ be a non-zero vector in $R^2$. Let $F: mathbb{R}^2
rightarrow W$ be a linear map such that $F(A)=O$. Show that the image
of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
I've taken following theorems from the book to try and construct the answer (proofs of theorems are omitted):
Theorem 3.2. Let $V$ be a vector space. Let $L: V rightarrow W$ be a linear map of $V$ into another space $W$. Let $n$ be the
dimension of $V$, $q$ the dimension of the kernel of $L$, and $s$ the
dimension of the image of $L$. Then $n = q + s$. In other words,
$$dim V= dim operatorname{Ker} L + dimoperatorname{Im } L$$
Answer that I have constructed assumes all possibilities of dimension that kernel might have (due to cardinality, and Theorem 3.2, $dimoperatorname{Ker}F in {0, 1, 2}$ of a linear map $F$).
Possibility 1) $dimoperatorname{Ker} F = 2$
If the dimension of kernel is $2$, that is, image is zero dimensional according to Theorem 3.2 ($dim operatorname{Im} F = dimmathbb{R}^{2} - dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 2 - 2 = 0$), then considering that kernel is a subspace, $mathbb{R}^2 = operatorname{Ker}F$, and therefore $F$ is a zero map having the image of ${0}$.
Possibility 2) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 1$
If kernel is $1$-dimensional, then so is the image according to Theorem 3.2 and thus we have a straight line as the image of $F$, considering that we have one-dimensional image under linear map $F$.
Possibility 3) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F ={0} $ (Presumably impossible)
Kernel can't be zero-dimensional, since it is spanned by two dimensional vectors that are not zero vectors.
Conclusion:
Hence the image of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
Is this answer sufficient and true? My explanation of Possibility 2) concerns me the most, it might not be specific enough.
Thank you!
linear-algebra functions linear-transformations
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
From S.L Linear Algebra:
Let $A$ be a non-zero vector in $R^2$. Let $F: mathbb{R}^2
rightarrow W$ be a linear map such that $F(A)=O$. Show that the image
of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
I've taken following theorems from the book to try and construct the answer (proofs of theorems are omitted):
Theorem 3.2. Let $V$ be a vector space. Let $L: V rightarrow W$ be a linear map of $V$ into another space $W$. Let $n$ be the
dimension of $V$, $q$ the dimension of the kernel of $L$, and $s$ the
dimension of the image of $L$. Then $n = q + s$. In other words,
$$dim V= dim operatorname{Ker} L + dimoperatorname{Im } L$$
Answer that I have constructed assumes all possibilities of dimension that kernel might have (due to cardinality, and Theorem 3.2, $dimoperatorname{Ker}F in {0, 1, 2}$ of a linear map $F$).
Possibility 1) $dimoperatorname{Ker} F = 2$
If the dimension of kernel is $2$, that is, image is zero dimensional according to Theorem 3.2 ($dim operatorname{Im} F = dimmathbb{R}^{2} - dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 2 - 2 = 0$), then considering that kernel is a subspace, $mathbb{R}^2 = operatorname{Ker}F$, and therefore $F$ is a zero map having the image of ${0}$.
Possibility 2) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 1$
If kernel is $1$-dimensional, then so is the image according to Theorem 3.2 and thus we have a straight line as the image of $F$, considering that we have one-dimensional image under linear map $F$.
Possibility 3) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F ={0} $ (Presumably impossible)
Kernel can't be zero-dimensional, since it is spanned by two dimensional vectors that are not zero vectors.
Conclusion:
Hence the image of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
Is this answer sufficient and true? My explanation of Possibility 2) concerns me the most, it might not be specific enough.
Thank you!
linear-algebra functions linear-transformations
$endgroup$
From S.L Linear Algebra:
Let $A$ be a non-zero vector in $R^2$. Let $F: mathbb{R}^2
rightarrow W$ be a linear map such that $F(A)=O$. Show that the image
of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
I've taken following theorems from the book to try and construct the answer (proofs of theorems are omitted):
Theorem 3.2. Let $V$ be a vector space. Let $L: V rightarrow W$ be a linear map of $V$ into another space $W$. Let $n$ be the
dimension of $V$, $q$ the dimension of the kernel of $L$, and $s$ the
dimension of the image of $L$. Then $n = q + s$. In other words,
$$dim V= dim operatorname{Ker} L + dimoperatorname{Im } L$$
Answer that I have constructed assumes all possibilities of dimension that kernel might have (due to cardinality, and Theorem 3.2, $dimoperatorname{Ker}F in {0, 1, 2}$ of a linear map $F$).
Possibility 1) $dimoperatorname{Ker} F = 2$
If the dimension of kernel is $2$, that is, image is zero dimensional according to Theorem 3.2 ($dim operatorname{Im} F = dimmathbb{R}^{2} - dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 2 - 2 = 0$), then considering that kernel is a subspace, $mathbb{R}^2 = operatorname{Ker}F$, and therefore $F$ is a zero map having the image of ${0}$.
Possibility 2) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F = 1$
If kernel is $1$-dimensional, then so is the image according to Theorem 3.2 and thus we have a straight line as the image of $F$, considering that we have one-dimensional image under linear map $F$.
Possibility 3) $dimoperatorname{Ker}F ={0} $ (Presumably impossible)
Kernel can't be zero-dimensional, since it is spanned by two dimensional vectors that are not zero vectors.
Conclusion:
Hence the image of $F$ is either a straight line or ${0}$.
Is this answer sufficient and true? My explanation of Possibility 2) concerns me the most, it might not be specific enough.
Thank you!
linear-algebra functions linear-transformations
linear-algebra functions linear-transformations
edited Nov 23 '18 at 19:19
Bernard
119k639112
119k639112
asked Nov 23 '18 at 19:12
ShellRoxShellRox
26028
26028
1
$begingroup$
$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15
1
1
$begingroup$
$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
$endgroup$
– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15
$begingroup$
@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your approach is correct!
P1) $dim(Im F)=0 implies Im(F)={0}$, because the image of a linear function is a subspace and hence $0$ is in it, and can't have anything else because its dimension is zero. So $F(x)=0 forall x$
P2) we have $dim(Ker F)=1$, applying the theorem you get $dim(Im T)=1$ and you can use the fact that two vector spaces are isomorphic (they are "the same space") if their dimension are equal, hence you can say that $Im(T)cong mathbb{R}$ which is a very nice way to justify that "$Im(T)$ is a straight line".
P3) can't be the case that $dim(Ker T)=0$ because this would implie $Ker(T)={0}$, but we know that $Anot=0$ and $Ain Ker(T)$
Your answer is good too! But it seems like it need to be more "direct" in a way... but the question isn't too direct either... I assumed that "being a straight line" is the same that "have dimension one"... but justifying that dimension one implies being isomorphic to the reals is also a good argument (because they are often called THE line).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're trying to use the Rank-Nullity Theorem.
$$ r + n = text{dim of the domain}$$.
You know 2 $ge$ n $ge$ 1, since A $in$ Ket(T). Thus 0 $le$ r $le$ 1.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your approach is correct!
P1) $dim(Im F)=0 implies Im(F)={0}$, because the image of a linear function is a subspace and hence $0$ is in it, and can't have anything else because its dimension is zero. So $F(x)=0 forall x$
P2) we have $dim(Ker F)=1$, applying the theorem you get $dim(Im T)=1$ and you can use the fact that two vector spaces are isomorphic (they are "the same space") if their dimension are equal, hence you can say that $Im(T)cong mathbb{R}$ which is a very nice way to justify that "$Im(T)$ is a straight line".
P3) can't be the case that $dim(Ker T)=0$ because this would implie $Ker(T)={0}$, but we know that $Anot=0$ and $Ain Ker(T)$
Your answer is good too! But it seems like it need to be more "direct" in a way... but the question isn't too direct either... I assumed that "being a straight line" is the same that "have dimension one"... but justifying that dimension one implies being isomorphic to the reals is also a good argument (because they are often called THE line).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your approach is correct!
P1) $dim(Im F)=0 implies Im(F)={0}$, because the image of a linear function is a subspace and hence $0$ is in it, and can't have anything else because its dimension is zero. So $F(x)=0 forall x$
P2) we have $dim(Ker F)=1$, applying the theorem you get $dim(Im T)=1$ and you can use the fact that two vector spaces are isomorphic (they are "the same space") if their dimension are equal, hence you can say that $Im(T)cong mathbb{R}$ which is a very nice way to justify that "$Im(T)$ is a straight line".
P3) can't be the case that $dim(Ker T)=0$ because this would implie $Ker(T)={0}$, but we know that $Anot=0$ and $Ain Ker(T)$
Your answer is good too! But it seems like it need to be more "direct" in a way... but the question isn't too direct either... I assumed that "being a straight line" is the same that "have dimension one"... but justifying that dimension one implies being isomorphic to the reals is also a good argument (because they are often called THE line).
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your approach is correct!
P1) $dim(Im F)=0 implies Im(F)={0}$, because the image of a linear function is a subspace and hence $0$ is in it, and can't have anything else because its dimension is zero. So $F(x)=0 forall x$
P2) we have $dim(Ker F)=1$, applying the theorem you get $dim(Im T)=1$ and you can use the fact that two vector spaces are isomorphic (they are "the same space") if their dimension are equal, hence you can say that $Im(T)cong mathbb{R}$ which is a very nice way to justify that "$Im(T)$ is a straight line".
P3) can't be the case that $dim(Ker T)=0$ because this would implie $Ker(T)={0}$, but we know that $Anot=0$ and $Ain Ker(T)$
Your answer is good too! But it seems like it need to be more "direct" in a way... but the question isn't too direct either... I assumed that "being a straight line" is the same that "have dimension one"... but justifying that dimension one implies being isomorphic to the reals is also a good argument (because they are often called THE line).
$endgroup$
Your approach is correct!
P1) $dim(Im F)=0 implies Im(F)={0}$, because the image of a linear function is a subspace and hence $0$ is in it, and can't have anything else because its dimension is zero. So $F(x)=0 forall x$
P2) we have $dim(Ker F)=1$, applying the theorem you get $dim(Im T)=1$ and you can use the fact that two vector spaces are isomorphic (they are "the same space") if their dimension are equal, hence you can say that $Im(T)cong mathbb{R}$ which is a very nice way to justify that "$Im(T)$ is a straight line".
P3) can't be the case that $dim(Ker T)=0$ because this would implie $Ker(T)={0}$, but we know that $Anot=0$ and $Ain Ker(T)$
Your answer is good too! But it seems like it need to be more "direct" in a way... but the question isn't too direct either... I assumed that "being a straight line" is the same that "have dimension one"... but justifying that dimension one implies being isomorphic to the reals is also a good argument (because they are often called THE line).
answered Nov 23 '18 at 22:04
RobsonRobson
769221
769221
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
1
1
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
$begingroup$
Thank you! So since two subspaces can be associated with bijective mapping (injective and surjective) they are isomorphic in this case. I have one last question, on my possibility 3 explanation, was I correct when I said that kernel not being "spanned" by only zero vectors makes it non trivial and higher dimensional?
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:11
1
1
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
$begingroup$
If I got what you said... yes! By definition if a subspace is "spanned" by some vectors, say $W=Span(v_1,cdots,v_n)$, then $dim (W)$ is the smallest number of non-zero vectors that we can get from $v_1,cdots, v_n$ and the Span still be $W$. Knowing that some $v_i$ is not zero you won't have all $W$ if you delet all $v_n$
$endgroup$
– Robson
Nov 23 '18 at 22:21
1
1
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
$begingroup$
Now I get it! Thank you!
$endgroup$
– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 23:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're trying to use the Rank-Nullity Theorem.
$$ r + n = text{dim of the domain}$$.
You know 2 $ge$ n $ge$ 1, since A $in$ Ket(T). Thus 0 $le$ r $le$ 1.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're trying to use the Rank-Nullity Theorem.
$$ r + n = text{dim of the domain}$$.
You know 2 $ge$ n $ge$ 1, since A $in$ Ket(T). Thus 0 $le$ r $le$ 1.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're trying to use the Rank-Nullity Theorem.
$$ r + n = text{dim of the domain}$$.
You know 2 $ge$ n $ge$ 1, since A $in$ Ket(T). Thus 0 $le$ r $le$ 1.
$endgroup$
You're trying to use the Rank-Nullity Theorem.
$$ r + n = text{dim of the domain}$$.
You know 2 $ge$ n $ge$ 1, since A $in$ Ket(T). Thus 0 $le$ r $le$ 1.
answered Nov 23 '18 at 20:19
Joel PereiraJoel Pereira
68819
68819
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
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$ker F$ can't be $0$ dimensional because $0neq Ainker F$.
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– Federico
Nov 23 '18 at 19:16
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@Federico That is what I tried to imply in the possibility 3, when I mentioned that kernel not being "spanned" by zero vectors makes it non trivial and therefore $> 0$ dimensional.
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– ShellRox
Nov 23 '18 at 22:15