A finite family of integrable functions is uniformly integrable and tight.












0












$begingroup$


I'm trying to prove a series of questions out of Royden's Real Analysis book. The questions are all extensions of each other.



The first is, Let ${f_j}_{j=1}^n$ be a finite family of functions, which of which is integrable over E. Show that ${f_j}_{k=1}^n$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



The second problem is an easy extension of the first. It goes let ${h_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative integrable functions on E. Suppose ${h_n(x)}to 0$ for almost all $x$ in $E$. Then $$lim_{nto infty}int_E h_n = 0$$ iff ${h_n}$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



Here there is a definition: A family of measurable functions on $E$ is said to be tight over $E$ provided for each $varepsilon>0$, there is a subset $E_0$ of $E$ of finite measure for which $int_{E-E_0} |f|<varepsilon$ for all $f$ in the family.



So there's information on how to solve the second problem (Uniform integrability and tightness.) but I want to solve the first problem.



Anyways, for each of the $j$-many members of the family $f_m$ write $$int_E f_m=sum_{k=-infty}^{infty} int_E u_{m_k},$$ where $f_mchi_{[k,k+1)}=u_{m_k}$ and $kinmathbb{Z}$. Since $f_m$ is integrable on $E$, for any $varepsilon > 0$ there exists an index $N_m$ such that $sum_{k=-infty}^{N_m} int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$ (otherwise $sum int u_{m_k}$ diverges.)



I am lucky and have a theorem which gives immediately that the family is uniformly integrable so all I have to prove is tightness.



I have it that $int_E f_n = int_{E-X_0}f_n + int_{X_0}f_n < varepsilon$. I have a list of indices $N_1,N_2,dots,N_n$ which are values in a totally ordered set, i.e., there exists a maximal index say $N^*$. Since $$sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*} int_E u_{m_k} > sum_{k=-infty}^{N_i} int_E u_{m_k} $$ holds for any of the non-maximal indices $N_i$ I can define $X_0$ as $E cap ([-infty, N^*]^c)$. Then $$int_{E-X_0} f_m = sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*}int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$$ holds for all $m$ as was desired.



This looks correct?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to prove a series of questions out of Royden's Real Analysis book. The questions are all extensions of each other.



    The first is, Let ${f_j}_{j=1}^n$ be a finite family of functions, which of which is integrable over E. Show that ${f_j}_{k=1}^n$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



    The second problem is an easy extension of the first. It goes let ${h_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative integrable functions on E. Suppose ${h_n(x)}to 0$ for almost all $x$ in $E$. Then $$lim_{nto infty}int_E h_n = 0$$ iff ${h_n}$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



    Here there is a definition: A family of measurable functions on $E$ is said to be tight over $E$ provided for each $varepsilon>0$, there is a subset $E_0$ of $E$ of finite measure for which $int_{E-E_0} |f|<varepsilon$ for all $f$ in the family.



    So there's information on how to solve the second problem (Uniform integrability and tightness.) but I want to solve the first problem.



    Anyways, for each of the $j$-many members of the family $f_m$ write $$int_E f_m=sum_{k=-infty}^{infty} int_E u_{m_k},$$ where $f_mchi_{[k,k+1)}=u_{m_k}$ and $kinmathbb{Z}$. Since $f_m$ is integrable on $E$, for any $varepsilon > 0$ there exists an index $N_m$ such that $sum_{k=-infty}^{N_m} int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$ (otherwise $sum int u_{m_k}$ diverges.)



    I am lucky and have a theorem which gives immediately that the family is uniformly integrable so all I have to prove is tightness.



    I have it that $int_E f_n = int_{E-X_0}f_n + int_{X_0}f_n < varepsilon$. I have a list of indices $N_1,N_2,dots,N_n$ which are values in a totally ordered set, i.e., there exists a maximal index say $N^*$. Since $$sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*} int_E u_{m_k} > sum_{k=-infty}^{N_i} int_E u_{m_k} $$ holds for any of the non-maximal indices $N_i$ I can define $X_0$ as $E cap ([-infty, N^*]^c)$. Then $$int_{E-X_0} f_m = sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*}int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$$ holds for all $m$ as was desired.



    This looks correct?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to prove a series of questions out of Royden's Real Analysis book. The questions are all extensions of each other.



      The first is, Let ${f_j}_{j=1}^n$ be a finite family of functions, which of which is integrable over E. Show that ${f_j}_{k=1}^n$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



      The second problem is an easy extension of the first. It goes let ${h_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative integrable functions on E. Suppose ${h_n(x)}to 0$ for almost all $x$ in $E$. Then $$lim_{nto infty}int_E h_n = 0$$ iff ${h_n}$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



      Here there is a definition: A family of measurable functions on $E$ is said to be tight over $E$ provided for each $varepsilon>0$, there is a subset $E_0$ of $E$ of finite measure for which $int_{E-E_0} |f|<varepsilon$ for all $f$ in the family.



      So there's information on how to solve the second problem (Uniform integrability and tightness.) but I want to solve the first problem.



      Anyways, for each of the $j$-many members of the family $f_m$ write $$int_E f_m=sum_{k=-infty}^{infty} int_E u_{m_k},$$ where $f_mchi_{[k,k+1)}=u_{m_k}$ and $kinmathbb{Z}$. Since $f_m$ is integrable on $E$, for any $varepsilon > 0$ there exists an index $N_m$ such that $sum_{k=-infty}^{N_m} int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$ (otherwise $sum int u_{m_k}$ diverges.)



      I am lucky and have a theorem which gives immediately that the family is uniformly integrable so all I have to prove is tightness.



      I have it that $int_E f_n = int_{E-X_0}f_n + int_{X_0}f_n < varepsilon$. I have a list of indices $N_1,N_2,dots,N_n$ which are values in a totally ordered set, i.e., there exists a maximal index say $N^*$. Since $$sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*} int_E u_{m_k} > sum_{k=-infty}^{N_i} int_E u_{m_k} $$ holds for any of the non-maximal indices $N_i$ I can define $X_0$ as $E cap ([-infty, N^*]^c)$. Then $$int_{E-X_0} f_m = sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*}int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$$ holds for all $m$ as was desired.



      This looks correct?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to prove a series of questions out of Royden's Real Analysis book. The questions are all extensions of each other.



      The first is, Let ${f_j}_{j=1}^n$ be a finite family of functions, which of which is integrable over E. Show that ${f_j}_{k=1}^n$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



      The second problem is an easy extension of the first. It goes let ${h_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative integrable functions on E. Suppose ${h_n(x)}to 0$ for almost all $x$ in $E$. Then $$lim_{nto infty}int_E h_n = 0$$ iff ${h_n}$ is uniformly integrable and tight over $E$.



      Here there is a definition: A family of measurable functions on $E$ is said to be tight over $E$ provided for each $varepsilon>0$, there is a subset $E_0$ of $E$ of finite measure for which $int_{E-E_0} |f|<varepsilon$ for all $f$ in the family.



      So there's information on how to solve the second problem (Uniform integrability and tightness.) but I want to solve the first problem.



      Anyways, for each of the $j$-many members of the family $f_m$ write $$int_E f_m=sum_{k=-infty}^{infty} int_E u_{m_k},$$ where $f_mchi_{[k,k+1)}=u_{m_k}$ and $kinmathbb{Z}$. Since $f_m$ is integrable on $E$, for any $varepsilon > 0$ there exists an index $N_m$ such that $sum_{k=-infty}^{N_m} int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$ (otherwise $sum int u_{m_k}$ diverges.)



      I am lucky and have a theorem which gives immediately that the family is uniformly integrable so all I have to prove is tightness.



      I have it that $int_E f_n = int_{E-X_0}f_n + int_{X_0}f_n < varepsilon$. I have a list of indices $N_1,N_2,dots,N_n$ which are values in a totally ordered set, i.e., there exists a maximal index say $N^*$. Since $$sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*} int_E u_{m_k} > sum_{k=-infty}^{N_i} int_E u_{m_k} $$ holds for any of the non-maximal indices $N_i$ I can define $X_0$ as $E cap ([-infty, N^*]^c)$. Then $$int_{E-X_0} f_m = sum_{k=-infty}^{N^*}int_E u_{m_k} < varepsilon$$ holds for all $m$ as was desired.



      This looks correct?







      lebesgue-integral






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 24 '18 at 1:31









      bkbowserbkbowser

      11




      11






















          0






          active

          oldest

          votes











          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3011067%2fa-finite-family-of-integrable-functions-is-uniformly-integrable-and-tight%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          0






          active

          oldest

          votes








          0






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes
















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3011067%2fa-finite-family-of-integrable-functions-is-uniformly-integrable-and-tight%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          How to change which sound is reproduced for terminal bell?

          Can I use Tabulator js library in my java Spring + Thymeleaf project?

          Title Spacing in Bjornstrup Chapter, Removing Chapter Number From Contents