Why is $dW^2=dt$ in stochastic calculus?(do not use Ito’ Lemma),












0












$begingroup$


I'm trying to calculate the following integral: $$int_0^t W_tdW_t$$
Without using Ito’ Lemma. I am confused about how $dW^2=dt$ when Ito's Lemma is not used.





Hint



Let W be a standard Wiener process and t an arbitrary positive real number. For each $n$, and $t_i=it2^{-n}$, then:




  1. show that $sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2$ converges to $t$ as $n$ grow.

  2. show that the terms in the sum are IID and that their variance
    shrinks sufficiently fast as $n$ grows and use the fourth moment of
    a Gaussian distribution.




So, I am left with the following:



$$E(sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2)=E(sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2)=?$$



What I have done



So, can I say since $(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))$ follow $sqrt {t_{i+1}-t_{i}}N(0,1)$ and by strong law of Large number
$sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$ converges to $sum_iE(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$=1/2 $sum_i(t_{i+1}-t_{i})$=t?



Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 5




    $begingroup$
    ?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:49










  • $begingroup$
    "According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:02
















0












$begingroup$


I'm trying to calculate the following integral: $$int_0^t W_tdW_t$$
Without using Ito’ Lemma. I am confused about how $dW^2=dt$ when Ito's Lemma is not used.





Hint



Let W be a standard Wiener process and t an arbitrary positive real number. For each $n$, and $t_i=it2^{-n}$, then:




  1. show that $sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2$ converges to $t$ as $n$ grow.

  2. show that the terms in the sum are IID and that their variance
    shrinks sufficiently fast as $n$ grows and use the fourth moment of
    a Gaussian distribution.




So, I am left with the following:



$$E(sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2)=E(sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2)=?$$



What I have done



So, can I say since $(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))$ follow $sqrt {t_{i+1}-t_{i}}N(0,1)$ and by strong law of Large number
$sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$ converges to $sum_iE(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$=1/2 $sum_i(t_{i+1}-t_{i})$=t?



Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 5




    $begingroup$
    ?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:49










  • $begingroup$
    "According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:02














0












0








0


3



$begingroup$


I'm trying to calculate the following integral: $$int_0^t W_tdW_t$$
Without using Ito’ Lemma. I am confused about how $dW^2=dt$ when Ito's Lemma is not used.





Hint



Let W be a standard Wiener process and t an arbitrary positive real number. For each $n$, and $t_i=it2^{-n}$, then:




  1. show that $sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2$ converges to $t$ as $n$ grow.

  2. show that the terms in the sum are IID and that their variance
    shrinks sufficiently fast as $n$ grows and use the fourth moment of
    a Gaussian distribution.




So, I am left with the following:



$$E(sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2)=E(sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2)=?$$



What I have done



So, can I say since $(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))$ follow $sqrt {t_{i+1}-t_{i}}N(0,1)$ and by strong law of Large number
$sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$ converges to $sum_iE(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$=1/2 $sum_i(t_{i+1}-t_{i})$=t?



Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to calculate the following integral: $$int_0^t W_tdW_t$$
Without using Ito’ Lemma. I am confused about how $dW^2=dt$ when Ito's Lemma is not used.





Hint



Let W be a standard Wiener process and t an arbitrary positive real number. For each $n$, and $t_i=it2^{-n}$, then:




  1. show that $sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2$ converges to $t$ as $n$ grow.

  2. show that the terms in the sum are IID and that their variance
    shrinks sufficiently fast as $n$ grows and use the fourth moment of
    a Gaussian distribution.




So, I am left with the following:



$$E(sum_i(Delta W(t_i))^2)=E(sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2)=?$$



What I have done



So, can I say since $(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))$ follow $sqrt {t_{i+1}-t_{i}}N(0,1)$ and by strong law of Large number
$sum_i(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$ converges to $sum_iE(W(t_{i+1})-W(t_{i}))^2$=1/2 $sum_i(t_{i+1}-t_{i})$=t?



Is this correct?







stochastic-processes stochastic-calculus stochastic-integrals






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 12 '18 at 23:32









Waqas

15913




15913










asked Dec 12 '18 at 16:53









gloriagloria

43




43








  • 5




    $begingroup$
    ?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:49










  • $begingroup$
    "According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:02














  • 5




    $begingroup$
    ?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
    $endgroup$
    – gloria
    Dec 12 '18 at 17:49










  • $begingroup$
    "According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:02








5




5




$begingroup$
?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 17:10




$begingroup$
?? What happened when you applied the (rather detailed) hint?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 17:10












$begingroup$
You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
$endgroup$
– gloria
Dec 12 '18 at 17:29




$begingroup$
You will need the fourth moment of a Gaussian distribution???
$endgroup$
– gloria
Dec 12 '18 at 17:29












$begingroup$
Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 17:32




$begingroup$
Is this supposed to address my comment? If not, why?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 17:32












$begingroup$
Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
$endgroup$
– gloria
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49




$begingroup$
Can not make sure my last step. Since it is said fourth moment. I just figure it like this.
$endgroup$
– gloria
Dec 12 '18 at 17:49












$begingroup$
"According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 18:02




$begingroup$
"According to [the] strong law of Large number[s] ... converges to ..." ?? LLN deals with means $frac1nsumlimits_{k=1}^nX_k$. Where do you see one here?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 12 '18 at 18:02










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Recall Riemann sum approximation is:



$$X_t^m = sum_{t_j<t}f_{t_j}Delta W_j$$



where $Delta t = 2^{-m}$ and $W_t$ is a standard Brownian motion, and



$$Delta W_j = W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}$$



The pathwise convergence is for every Brownian motion and the Riemann approx. converges to the limit such that the limit is measurable for the filtration up till $t$ because $X_t$ is a continuous function of $W_{[0,t]}$. Here I will skip a lot of explanation on Reimann sum approx. (and will take $Delta W_j$ as Gaussian with mean $Delta t$ and variance $2Delta t^2$ (essentially above hint) see this) and go to the problem at hand which is:



$$X_t=int_{0}^t W_s dW_s$$



By Riemann sum approx. we write



$$X_t^m=sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_{j}})$$



Noticing that:



$$W_{t_j}=frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})-frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})$$



So we can write:



$$X_t^m=frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{first sum}}-frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{second sum}}$$



Notice,
$$(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})=W^2_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}^2$$



By telescoping sum and by letting $t_n=max{t_j|t_j<t}$ the first sum term becomes $frac{1}{2}(W^2_{t_{n+1}}-W_0^2)$. Also, because $W_0=0$, we get $frac{1}{2}W^2_{t_{n+1}}$ and $W_{t_{n+1}}rightarrow W_t$ as $Delta t rightarrow 0$. Now the second sum term is $sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2=S$ and since $E(Delta W_j^2)=Delta t$, so




$$E(sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2)=E(S)=sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=t_n$$




This answer's the ? in the above question



$t_nrightarrow t$ as $Delta trightarrow 0$. Similarly for variance



$$var(S)=2Delta t sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=2Delta t t_n leq 2 t 2^{-m}$$



Thus,




$$int_0^t W_s dW_s = frac{1}{2}(W_t^2 - t)$$




This is the problem statement



Notice, if $W_t$ was differentiable we would obtain $frac{1}{2}W_t^2$ instead.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Recall Riemann sum approximation is:



    $$X_t^m = sum_{t_j<t}f_{t_j}Delta W_j$$



    where $Delta t = 2^{-m}$ and $W_t$ is a standard Brownian motion, and



    $$Delta W_j = W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}$$



    The pathwise convergence is for every Brownian motion and the Riemann approx. converges to the limit such that the limit is measurable for the filtration up till $t$ because $X_t$ is a continuous function of $W_{[0,t]}$. Here I will skip a lot of explanation on Reimann sum approx. (and will take $Delta W_j$ as Gaussian with mean $Delta t$ and variance $2Delta t^2$ (essentially above hint) see this) and go to the problem at hand which is:



    $$X_t=int_{0}^t W_s dW_s$$



    By Riemann sum approx. we write



    $$X_t^m=sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_{j}})$$



    Noticing that:



    $$W_{t_j}=frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})-frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})$$



    So we can write:



    $$X_t^m=frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{first sum}}-frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{second sum}}$$



    Notice,
    $$(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})=W^2_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}^2$$



    By telescoping sum and by letting $t_n=max{t_j|t_j<t}$ the first sum term becomes $frac{1}{2}(W^2_{t_{n+1}}-W_0^2)$. Also, because $W_0=0$, we get $frac{1}{2}W^2_{t_{n+1}}$ and $W_{t_{n+1}}rightarrow W_t$ as $Delta t rightarrow 0$. Now the second sum term is $sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2=S$ and since $E(Delta W_j^2)=Delta t$, so




    $$E(sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2)=E(S)=sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=t_n$$




    This answer's the ? in the above question



    $t_nrightarrow t$ as $Delta trightarrow 0$. Similarly for variance



    $$var(S)=2Delta t sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=2Delta t t_n leq 2 t 2^{-m}$$



    Thus,




    $$int_0^t W_s dW_s = frac{1}{2}(W_t^2 - t)$$




    This is the problem statement



    Notice, if $W_t$ was differentiable we would obtain $frac{1}{2}W_t^2$ instead.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Recall Riemann sum approximation is:



      $$X_t^m = sum_{t_j<t}f_{t_j}Delta W_j$$



      where $Delta t = 2^{-m}$ and $W_t$ is a standard Brownian motion, and



      $$Delta W_j = W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}$$



      The pathwise convergence is for every Brownian motion and the Riemann approx. converges to the limit such that the limit is measurable for the filtration up till $t$ because $X_t$ is a continuous function of $W_{[0,t]}$. Here I will skip a lot of explanation on Reimann sum approx. (and will take $Delta W_j$ as Gaussian with mean $Delta t$ and variance $2Delta t^2$ (essentially above hint) see this) and go to the problem at hand which is:



      $$X_t=int_{0}^t W_s dW_s$$



      By Riemann sum approx. we write



      $$X_t^m=sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_{j}})$$



      Noticing that:



      $$W_{t_j}=frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})-frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})$$



      So we can write:



      $$X_t^m=frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{first sum}}-frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{second sum}}$$



      Notice,
      $$(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})=W^2_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}^2$$



      By telescoping sum and by letting $t_n=max{t_j|t_j<t}$ the first sum term becomes $frac{1}{2}(W^2_{t_{n+1}}-W_0^2)$. Also, because $W_0=0$, we get $frac{1}{2}W^2_{t_{n+1}}$ and $W_{t_{n+1}}rightarrow W_t$ as $Delta t rightarrow 0$. Now the second sum term is $sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2=S$ and since $E(Delta W_j^2)=Delta t$, so




      $$E(sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2)=E(S)=sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=t_n$$




      This answer's the ? in the above question



      $t_nrightarrow t$ as $Delta trightarrow 0$. Similarly for variance



      $$var(S)=2Delta t sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=2Delta t t_n leq 2 t 2^{-m}$$



      Thus,




      $$int_0^t W_s dW_s = frac{1}{2}(W_t^2 - t)$$




      This is the problem statement



      Notice, if $W_t$ was differentiable we would obtain $frac{1}{2}W_t^2$ instead.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Recall Riemann sum approximation is:



        $$X_t^m = sum_{t_j<t}f_{t_j}Delta W_j$$



        where $Delta t = 2^{-m}$ and $W_t$ is a standard Brownian motion, and



        $$Delta W_j = W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}$$



        The pathwise convergence is for every Brownian motion and the Riemann approx. converges to the limit such that the limit is measurable for the filtration up till $t$ because $X_t$ is a continuous function of $W_{[0,t]}$. Here I will skip a lot of explanation on Reimann sum approx. (and will take $Delta W_j$ as Gaussian with mean $Delta t$ and variance $2Delta t^2$ (essentially above hint) see this) and go to the problem at hand which is:



        $$X_t=int_{0}^t W_s dW_s$$



        By Riemann sum approx. we write



        $$X_t^m=sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_{j}})$$



        Noticing that:



        $$W_{t_j}=frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})-frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})$$



        So we can write:



        $$X_t^m=frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{first sum}}-frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{second sum}}$$



        Notice,
        $$(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})=W^2_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}^2$$



        By telescoping sum and by letting $t_n=max{t_j|t_j<t}$ the first sum term becomes $frac{1}{2}(W^2_{t_{n+1}}-W_0^2)$. Also, because $W_0=0$, we get $frac{1}{2}W^2_{t_{n+1}}$ and $W_{t_{n+1}}rightarrow W_t$ as $Delta t rightarrow 0$. Now the second sum term is $sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2=S$ and since $E(Delta W_j^2)=Delta t$, so




        $$E(sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2)=E(S)=sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=t_n$$




        This answer's the ? in the above question



        $t_nrightarrow t$ as $Delta trightarrow 0$. Similarly for variance



        $$var(S)=2Delta t sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=2Delta t t_n leq 2 t 2^{-m}$$



        Thus,




        $$int_0^t W_s dW_s = frac{1}{2}(W_t^2 - t)$$




        This is the problem statement



        Notice, if $W_t$ was differentiable we would obtain $frac{1}{2}W_t^2$ instead.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Recall Riemann sum approximation is:



        $$X_t^m = sum_{t_j<t}f_{t_j}Delta W_j$$



        where $Delta t = 2^{-m}$ and $W_t$ is a standard Brownian motion, and



        $$Delta W_j = W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}$$



        The pathwise convergence is for every Brownian motion and the Riemann approx. converges to the limit such that the limit is measurable for the filtration up till $t$ because $X_t$ is a continuous function of $W_{[0,t]}$. Here I will skip a lot of explanation on Reimann sum approx. (and will take $Delta W_j$ as Gaussian with mean $Delta t$ and variance $2Delta t^2$ (essentially above hint) see this) and go to the problem at hand which is:



        $$X_t=int_{0}^t W_s dW_s$$



        By Riemann sum approx. we write



        $$X_t^m=sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_{j}})$$



        Noticing that:



        $$W_{t_j}=frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})-frac{1}{2}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})$$



        So we can write:



        $$X_t^m=frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{first sum}}-frac{1}{2}underbrace{sum_{t_j<t}W_{t_j}(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})}_{text{second sum}}$$



        Notice,
        $$(W_{t_{j+1}}+W_{t_j})(W_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j})=W^2_{t_{j+1}}-W_{t_j}^2$$



        By telescoping sum and by letting $t_n=max{t_j|t_j<t}$ the first sum term becomes $frac{1}{2}(W^2_{t_{n+1}}-W_0^2)$. Also, because $W_0=0$, we get $frac{1}{2}W^2_{t_{n+1}}$ and $W_{t_{n+1}}rightarrow W_t$ as $Delta t rightarrow 0$. Now the second sum term is $sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2=S$ and since $E(Delta W_j^2)=Delta t$, so




        $$E(sum_{t_j<t}Delta W_j^2)=E(S)=sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=t_n$$




        This answer's the ? in the above question



        $t_nrightarrow t$ as $Delta trightarrow 0$. Similarly for variance



        $$var(S)=2Delta t sum_{t_j<t}Delta t=2Delta t t_n leq 2 t 2^{-m}$$



        Thus,




        $$int_0^t W_s dW_s = frac{1}{2}(W_t^2 - t)$$




        This is the problem statement



        Notice, if $W_t$ was differentiable we would obtain $frac{1}{2}W_t^2$ instead.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 13 '18 at 3:21

























        answered Dec 12 '18 at 21:32









        WaqasWaqas

        15913




        15913






























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