If $z= arctan frac{y}{x}$ show that the following is true $x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial...












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$begingroup$



If $z= arctan frac{y}{x}$ show that the following is true
$$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$




So I don't truly understand how implicit partial differentiation works, but I understand normal implicit differentiation. I would be great if someone would be able to give some help with this.



The question also gives a side note of
$$frac{partial}{partial x}left( arctan z right) = frac{1}{1+z^2}times frac{partial z}{partial x}$$



Im thinking you start by putting the euqation as $tan z =frac{y}{x}$?










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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:27












  • $begingroup$
    So it can be done with and without implict?
    $endgroup$
    – H.Linkhorn
    Jan 1 at 16:28










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:30


















1












$begingroup$



If $z= arctan frac{y}{x}$ show that the following is true
$$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$




So I don't truly understand how implicit partial differentiation works, but I understand normal implicit differentiation. I would be great if someone would be able to give some help with this.



The question also gives a side note of
$$frac{partial}{partial x}left( arctan z right) = frac{1}{1+z^2}times frac{partial z}{partial x}$$



Im thinking you start by putting the euqation as $tan z =frac{y}{x}$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:27












  • $begingroup$
    So it can be done with and without implict?
    $endgroup$
    – H.Linkhorn
    Jan 1 at 16:28










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:30
















1












1








1


1



$begingroup$



If $z= arctan frac{y}{x}$ show that the following is true
$$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$




So I don't truly understand how implicit partial differentiation works, but I understand normal implicit differentiation. I would be great if someone would be able to give some help with this.



The question also gives a side note of
$$frac{partial}{partial x}left( arctan z right) = frac{1}{1+z^2}times frac{partial z}{partial x}$$



Im thinking you start by putting the euqation as $tan z =frac{y}{x}$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





If $z= arctan frac{y}{x}$ show that the following is true
$$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$




So I don't truly understand how implicit partial differentiation works, but I understand normal implicit differentiation. I would be great if someone would be able to give some help with this.



The question also gives a side note of
$$frac{partial}{partial x}left( arctan z right) = frac{1}{1+z^2}times frac{partial z}{partial x}$$



Im thinking you start by putting the euqation as $tan z =frac{y}{x}$?







partial-derivative






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 1 at 16:23









H.LinkhornH.Linkhorn

537313




537313








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:27












  • $begingroup$
    So it can be done with and without implict?
    $endgroup$
    – H.Linkhorn
    Jan 1 at 16:28










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:30
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:27












  • $begingroup$
    So it can be done with and without implict?
    $endgroup$
    – H.Linkhorn
    Jan 1 at 16:28










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
    $endgroup$
    – AlephNull
    Jan 1 at 16:30










3




3




$begingroup$
Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
$endgroup$
– AlephNull
Jan 1 at 16:27






$begingroup$
Implicit differentiation is unnecessary here, you only need the two partial derivatives of z, which is a function of x and y. So just differentiate z wrt x (i.e. treat y as constant), and differentiate z wrt y, and the required identity should follow. If you're struggling with partial differentiation, say wrt x, then it may help to view y as a concrete constant like 2.
$endgroup$
– AlephNull
Jan 1 at 16:27














$begingroup$
So it can be done with and without implict?
$endgroup$
– H.Linkhorn
Jan 1 at 16:28




$begingroup$
So it can be done with and without implict?
$endgroup$
– H.Linkhorn
Jan 1 at 16:28












$begingroup$
Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
$endgroup$
– AlephNull
Jan 1 at 16:30






$begingroup$
Yes, provided that you know the derivative of arctan, which is given implicitly in the side note you mentioned anyway. (When I say implicitly here I don't mean it in the mathematical sense! Edit: Though I suppose it is also true in the mathematical sense.)
$endgroup$
– AlephNull
Jan 1 at 16:30












5 Answers
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1












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Just for the fun of it, and for the sake of "completeness", let's first find the derivative of $arctan w$ ourselves:



Set



$z = arctan w; tag 1$



then



$w(z) = tan z = dfrac{sin z}{cos z}; tag 2$



we have



$w'(z) = dfrac{(cos z)(cos z) - (-sin z)(sin z)}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z; tag 3$
we use the identity



$1 + tan^2 z = 1 + dfrac{sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z tag 4$



to write



$dfrac{dw}{dz} = w'(z) = 1 + tan^2 z = 1 + w^2, tag 5$



whence



$z'(w) = dfrac{dz}{dw} = dfrac{d(arctan w)}{dw} = dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}. tag 6$



Now having $z'(w)$ at hand, we set



$w = dfrac{y}{x} = yx^{-1}, tag 7$



and use the chain rule to find $partial z / partial x$, $partial z / partial y$:



$dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial x}, tag 8$



$dfrac{partial w}{partial x} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}; tag 9$



we fold (6) and (9) into (8):



$dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} , tag{10}$



also,



$dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial y} = x^{-1}, tag{10}$



whence,



$dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = x^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}; tag{11}$



therefore,



$x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + y dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = -yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} + yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} = 0, tag{12}$



as was to be proved.



So much for the "standard derivation" based upon straightforward partial differentiation. However,



There is in fact a much swifter, easier way to do this:



We have the radial vector



$mathbf r = begin{pmatrix} x \ y end{pmatrix}, tag{13}$



and that the central angle which $mathbf r$ makes with the $x$-axis is



$theta = arctan dfrac{y}{x} = z; tag{14}$



it follows that



$nabla theta = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial theta}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial theta}{partial y} end{pmatrix} = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial z}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial z}{partial y} end{pmatrix}; tag{15}$



thus,



$mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{16}$



since $theta$ does not change in the $mathbf r$ direction; indeed, we see that, for $0 < alpha in Bbb R$,



$arctan dfrac{alpha y}{alpha x} = arctan dfrac{y}{x}, tag{17}$



which shows that $theta$ is invariant along the rays $alpha mathbf r$. Therefore,



$x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + ydfrac{partial z}{partial y} = mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{18}$



as required. $OEDelta$.






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    1












    $begingroup$

    Let $u=y/x$ so $xfrac{partial u}{partial x}+yfrac{partial u}{partial y}=xcdotfrac{-y}{x^2}+ycdotfrac{1}{x}=0$. Then $xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{dz}{du}cdot 0=0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{y}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot (frac{-1}{x^2})=frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$$



      and



      $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot frac1x=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}.$$



      Now substitute in
      $$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        0












        $begingroup$

        Here is a way to do this without implicit differentiation.
        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}frac{-1}{x^2}=-frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
        $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{x^{-1}}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}=frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
        Therefore,
        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









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          0












          $begingroup$

          first apply the chain rule to evaluate the partial derivative.
          $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)$$
          $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{1}{x}right)$$
          so,now
          $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x}right)......(1)$$
          $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{y}{x}right)..................(2)$$
          adding (1)+(2),
          $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left[left(-frac{y}{x}right)+left(frac{y}{x}right)right]=0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            5 Answers
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            5 Answers
            5






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            Just for the fun of it, and for the sake of "completeness", let's first find the derivative of $arctan w$ ourselves:



            Set



            $z = arctan w; tag 1$



            then



            $w(z) = tan z = dfrac{sin z}{cos z}; tag 2$



            we have



            $w'(z) = dfrac{(cos z)(cos z) - (-sin z)(sin z)}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z; tag 3$
            we use the identity



            $1 + tan^2 z = 1 + dfrac{sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z tag 4$



            to write



            $dfrac{dw}{dz} = w'(z) = 1 + tan^2 z = 1 + w^2, tag 5$



            whence



            $z'(w) = dfrac{dz}{dw} = dfrac{d(arctan w)}{dw} = dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}. tag 6$



            Now having $z'(w)$ at hand, we set



            $w = dfrac{y}{x} = yx^{-1}, tag 7$



            and use the chain rule to find $partial z / partial x$, $partial z / partial y$:



            $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial x}, tag 8$



            $dfrac{partial w}{partial x} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}; tag 9$



            we fold (6) and (9) into (8):



            $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} , tag{10}$



            also,



            $dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial y} = x^{-1}, tag{10}$



            whence,



            $dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = x^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}; tag{11}$



            therefore,



            $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + y dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = -yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} + yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} = 0, tag{12}$



            as was to be proved.



            So much for the "standard derivation" based upon straightforward partial differentiation. However,



            There is in fact a much swifter, easier way to do this:



            We have the radial vector



            $mathbf r = begin{pmatrix} x \ y end{pmatrix}, tag{13}$



            and that the central angle which $mathbf r$ makes with the $x$-axis is



            $theta = arctan dfrac{y}{x} = z; tag{14}$



            it follows that



            $nabla theta = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial theta}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial theta}{partial y} end{pmatrix} = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial z}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial z}{partial y} end{pmatrix}; tag{15}$



            thus,



            $mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{16}$



            since $theta$ does not change in the $mathbf r$ direction; indeed, we see that, for $0 < alpha in Bbb R$,



            $arctan dfrac{alpha y}{alpha x} = arctan dfrac{y}{x}, tag{17}$



            which shows that $theta$ is invariant along the rays $alpha mathbf r$. Therefore,



            $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + ydfrac{partial z}{partial y} = mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{18}$



            as required. $OEDelta$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Just for the fun of it, and for the sake of "completeness", let's first find the derivative of $arctan w$ ourselves:



              Set



              $z = arctan w; tag 1$



              then



              $w(z) = tan z = dfrac{sin z}{cos z}; tag 2$



              we have



              $w'(z) = dfrac{(cos z)(cos z) - (-sin z)(sin z)}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z; tag 3$
              we use the identity



              $1 + tan^2 z = 1 + dfrac{sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z tag 4$



              to write



              $dfrac{dw}{dz} = w'(z) = 1 + tan^2 z = 1 + w^2, tag 5$



              whence



              $z'(w) = dfrac{dz}{dw} = dfrac{d(arctan w)}{dw} = dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}. tag 6$



              Now having $z'(w)$ at hand, we set



              $w = dfrac{y}{x} = yx^{-1}, tag 7$



              and use the chain rule to find $partial z / partial x$, $partial z / partial y$:



              $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial x}, tag 8$



              $dfrac{partial w}{partial x} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}; tag 9$



              we fold (6) and (9) into (8):



              $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} , tag{10}$



              also,



              $dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial y} = x^{-1}, tag{10}$



              whence,



              $dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = x^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}; tag{11}$



              therefore,



              $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + y dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = -yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} + yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} = 0, tag{12}$



              as was to be proved.



              So much for the "standard derivation" based upon straightforward partial differentiation. However,



              There is in fact a much swifter, easier way to do this:



              We have the radial vector



              $mathbf r = begin{pmatrix} x \ y end{pmatrix}, tag{13}$



              and that the central angle which $mathbf r$ makes with the $x$-axis is



              $theta = arctan dfrac{y}{x} = z; tag{14}$



              it follows that



              $nabla theta = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial theta}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial theta}{partial y} end{pmatrix} = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial z}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial z}{partial y} end{pmatrix}; tag{15}$



              thus,



              $mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{16}$



              since $theta$ does not change in the $mathbf r$ direction; indeed, we see that, for $0 < alpha in Bbb R$,



              $arctan dfrac{alpha y}{alpha x} = arctan dfrac{y}{x}, tag{17}$



              which shows that $theta$ is invariant along the rays $alpha mathbf r$. Therefore,



              $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + ydfrac{partial z}{partial y} = mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{18}$



              as required. $OEDelta$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Just for the fun of it, and for the sake of "completeness", let's first find the derivative of $arctan w$ ourselves:



                Set



                $z = arctan w; tag 1$



                then



                $w(z) = tan z = dfrac{sin z}{cos z}; tag 2$



                we have



                $w'(z) = dfrac{(cos z)(cos z) - (-sin z)(sin z)}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z; tag 3$
                we use the identity



                $1 + tan^2 z = 1 + dfrac{sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z tag 4$



                to write



                $dfrac{dw}{dz} = w'(z) = 1 + tan^2 z = 1 + w^2, tag 5$



                whence



                $z'(w) = dfrac{dz}{dw} = dfrac{d(arctan w)}{dw} = dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}. tag 6$



                Now having $z'(w)$ at hand, we set



                $w = dfrac{y}{x} = yx^{-1}, tag 7$



                and use the chain rule to find $partial z / partial x$, $partial z / partial y$:



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial x}, tag 8$



                $dfrac{partial w}{partial x} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}; tag 9$



                we fold (6) and (9) into (8):



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} , tag{10}$



                also,



                $dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial y} = x^{-1}, tag{10}$



                whence,



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = x^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}; tag{11}$



                therefore,



                $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + y dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = -yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} + yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} = 0, tag{12}$



                as was to be proved.



                So much for the "standard derivation" based upon straightforward partial differentiation. However,



                There is in fact a much swifter, easier way to do this:



                We have the radial vector



                $mathbf r = begin{pmatrix} x \ y end{pmatrix}, tag{13}$



                and that the central angle which $mathbf r$ makes with the $x$-axis is



                $theta = arctan dfrac{y}{x} = z; tag{14}$



                it follows that



                $nabla theta = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial theta}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial theta}{partial y} end{pmatrix} = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial z}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial z}{partial y} end{pmatrix}; tag{15}$



                thus,



                $mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{16}$



                since $theta$ does not change in the $mathbf r$ direction; indeed, we see that, for $0 < alpha in Bbb R$,



                $arctan dfrac{alpha y}{alpha x} = arctan dfrac{y}{x}, tag{17}$



                which shows that $theta$ is invariant along the rays $alpha mathbf r$. Therefore,



                $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + ydfrac{partial z}{partial y} = mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{18}$



                as required. $OEDelta$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Just for the fun of it, and for the sake of "completeness", let's first find the derivative of $arctan w$ ourselves:



                Set



                $z = arctan w; tag 1$



                then



                $w(z) = tan z = dfrac{sin z}{cos z}; tag 2$



                we have



                $w'(z) = dfrac{(cos z)(cos z) - (-sin z)(sin z)}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z; tag 3$
                we use the identity



                $1 + tan^2 z = 1 + dfrac{sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{cos^2 z + sin^2 z}{cos^2 z} = dfrac{1}{cos^2 z} = sec^2 z tag 4$



                to write



                $dfrac{dw}{dz} = w'(z) = 1 + tan^2 z = 1 + w^2, tag 5$



                whence



                $z'(w) = dfrac{dz}{dw} = dfrac{d(arctan w)}{dw} = dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}. tag 6$



                Now having $z'(w)$ at hand, we set



                $w = dfrac{y}{x} = yx^{-1}, tag 7$



                and use the chain rule to find $partial z / partial x$, $partial z / partial y$:



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial x}, tag 8$



                $dfrac{partial w}{partial x} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}; tag 9$



                we fold (6) and (9) into (8):



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial x} = -yx^{-2}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} , tag{10}$



                also,



                $dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = dfrac{partial (yx^{-1})}{partial y} = x^{-1}, tag{10}$



                whence,



                $dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = dfrac{dz}{dw} dfrac{partial w}{partial y} = x^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2}; tag{11}$



                therefore,



                $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + y dfrac{partial z}{partial y} = -yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} + yx^{-1}dfrac{1}{1 + w^2} = 0, tag{12}$



                as was to be proved.



                So much for the "standard derivation" based upon straightforward partial differentiation. However,



                There is in fact a much swifter, easier way to do this:



                We have the radial vector



                $mathbf r = begin{pmatrix} x \ y end{pmatrix}, tag{13}$



                and that the central angle which $mathbf r$ makes with the $x$-axis is



                $theta = arctan dfrac{y}{x} = z; tag{14}$



                it follows that



                $nabla theta = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial theta}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial theta}{partial y} end{pmatrix} = begin{pmatrix} dfrac{partial z}{partial x} \ dfrac{partial z}{partial y} end{pmatrix}; tag{15}$



                thus,



                $mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{16}$



                since $theta$ does not change in the $mathbf r$ direction; indeed, we see that, for $0 < alpha in Bbb R$,



                $arctan dfrac{alpha y}{alpha x} = arctan dfrac{y}{x}, tag{17}$



                which shows that $theta$ is invariant along the rays $alpha mathbf r$. Therefore,



                $x dfrac{partial z}{partial x} + ydfrac{partial z}{partial y} = mathbf r cdot nabla theta = nabla_{mathbf r} theta = 0, tag{18}$



                as required. $OEDelta$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 1 at 22:10









                Robert LewisRobert Lewis

                49.1k23168




                49.1k23168























                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    Let $u=y/x$ so $xfrac{partial u}{partial x}+yfrac{partial u}{partial y}=xcdotfrac{-y}{x^2}+ycdotfrac{1}{x}=0$. Then $xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{dz}{du}cdot 0=0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$


















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Let $u=y/x$ so $xfrac{partial u}{partial x}+yfrac{partial u}{partial y}=xcdotfrac{-y}{x^2}+ycdotfrac{1}{x}=0$. Then $xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{dz}{du}cdot 0=0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$
















                        1












                        1








                        1





                        $begingroup$

                        Let $u=y/x$ so $xfrac{partial u}{partial x}+yfrac{partial u}{partial y}=xcdotfrac{-y}{x^2}+ycdotfrac{1}{x}=0$. Then $xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{dz}{du}cdot 0=0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



                        Let $u=y/x$ so $xfrac{partial u}{partial x}+yfrac{partial u}{partial y}=xcdotfrac{-y}{x^2}+ycdotfrac{1}{x}=0$. Then $xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{dz}{du}cdot 0=0$.







                        share|cite|improve this answer












                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer










                        answered Jan 1 at 16:37









                        J.G.J.G.

                        34k23252




                        34k23252























                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{y}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot (frac{-1}{x^2})=frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$$



                            and



                            $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot frac1x=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}.$$



                            Now substitute in
                            $$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}.$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$


















                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{y}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot (frac{-1}{x^2})=frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$$



                              and



                              $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot frac1x=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}.$$



                              Now substitute in
                              $$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}.$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$
















                                1












                                1








                                1





                                $begingroup$

                                $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{y}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot (frac{-1}{x^2})=frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$$



                                and



                                $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot frac1x=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}.$$



                                Now substitute in
                                $$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}.$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$



                                $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{y}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot (frac{-1}{x^2})=frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}$$



                                and



                                $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+frac{y^2}{x^2}}cdot frac1x=frac{x}{x^2+y^2}.$$



                                Now substitute in
                                $$x frac{partial z}{partial x}+y frac{partial z}{partial y}.$$







                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                answered Jan 1 at 16:37









                                Thomas ShelbyThomas Shelby

                                4,8082727




                                4,8082727























                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Here is a way to do this without implicit differentiation.
                                    $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}frac{-1}{x^2}=-frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                    $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{x^{-1}}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}=frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                    Therefore,
                                    $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$


















                                      0












                                      $begingroup$

                                      Here is a way to do this without implicit differentiation.
                                      $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}frac{-1}{x^2}=-frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                      $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{x^{-1}}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}=frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                      Therefore,
                                      $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$
















                                        0












                                        0








                                        0





                                        $begingroup$

                                        Here is a way to do this without implicit differentiation.
                                        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}frac{-1}{x^2}=-frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                        $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{x^{-1}}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}=frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                        Therefore,
                                        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$






                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                        $endgroup$



                                        Here is a way to do this without implicit differentiation.
                                        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}frac{-1}{x^2}=-frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                        $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{x^{-1}}{1+(yx^{-1})^2}=frac{1}{x(1+(yx^{-1})^2)}$$
                                        Therefore,
                                        $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=0$$







                                        share|cite|improve this answer












                                        share|cite|improve this answer



                                        share|cite|improve this answer










                                        answered Jan 1 at 16:36









                                        LarryLarry

                                        2,55531131




                                        2,55531131























                                            0












                                            $begingroup$

                                            first apply the chain rule to evaluate the partial derivative.
                                            $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)$$
                                            $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{1}{x}right)$$
                                            so,now
                                            $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x}right)......(1)$$
                                            $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{y}{x}right)..................(2)$$
                                            adding (1)+(2),
                                            $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left[left(-frac{y}{x}right)+left(frac{y}{x}right)right]=0$$






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$


















                                              0












                                              $begingroup$

                                              first apply the chain rule to evaluate the partial derivative.
                                              $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)$$
                                              $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{1}{x}right)$$
                                              so,now
                                              $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x}right)......(1)$$
                                              $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{y}{x}right)..................(2)$$
                                              adding (1)+(2),
                                              $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left[left(-frac{y}{x}right)+left(frac{y}{x}right)right]=0$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$
















                                                0












                                                0








                                                0





                                                $begingroup$

                                                first apply the chain rule to evaluate the partial derivative.
                                                $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)$$
                                                $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{1}{x}right)$$
                                                so,now
                                                $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x}right)......(1)$$
                                                $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{y}{x}right)..................(2)$$
                                                adding (1)+(2),
                                                $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left[left(-frac{y}{x}right)+left(frac{y}{x}right)right]=0$$






                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                $endgroup$



                                                first apply the chain rule to evaluate the partial derivative.
                                                $$frac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)$$
                                                $$frac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{1}{x}right)$$
                                                so,now
                                                $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}=frac{x}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x^2}right)=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(-frac{y}{x}right)......(1)$$
                                                $$yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left(frac{y}{x}right)..................(2)$$
                                                adding (1)+(2),
                                                $$xfrac{partial z}{partial x}+yfrac{partial z}{partial y}=frac{1}{1+left(frac{x}{y}right)^2}left[left(-frac{y}{x}right)+left(frac{y}{x}right)right]=0$$







                                                share|cite|improve this answer












                                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                                share|cite|improve this answer










                                                answered Jan 1 at 16:45









                                                Rakibul Islam PrinceRakibul Islam Prince

                                                980311




                                                980311






























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