Show that two cardioids $r=a(1+costheta)$ and $r=a(1-costheta)$ are at right angles.
$begingroup$
Show that two cardioids $r=a(1+costheta)$ and $r=a(1-costheta)$ are at right angles.
$frac{dr}{dtheta}=-asintheta$ for the first curve and $frac{dr}{dtheta}=asintheta$ for the second curve but i dont know how to prove them perpendicular.
calculus derivatives analytic-geometry polar-coordinates parametrization
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that two cardioids $r=a(1+costheta)$ and $r=a(1-costheta)$ are at right angles.
$frac{dr}{dtheta}=-asintheta$ for the first curve and $frac{dr}{dtheta}=asintheta$ for the second curve but i dont know how to prove them perpendicular.
calculus derivatives analytic-geometry polar-coordinates parametrization
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show that two cardioids $r=a(1+costheta)$ and $r=a(1-costheta)$ are at right angles.
$frac{dr}{dtheta}=-asintheta$ for the first curve and $frac{dr}{dtheta}=asintheta$ for the second curve but i dont know how to prove them perpendicular.
calculus derivatives analytic-geometry polar-coordinates parametrization
$endgroup$
Show that two cardioids $r=a(1+costheta)$ and $r=a(1-costheta)$ are at right angles.
$frac{dr}{dtheta}=-asintheta$ for the first curve and $frac{dr}{dtheta}=asintheta$ for the second curve but i dont know how to prove them perpendicular.
calculus derivatives analytic-geometry polar-coordinates parametrization
calculus derivatives analytic-geometry polar-coordinates parametrization
edited Dec 11 '18 at 12:50
Batominovski
33.1k33293
33.1k33293
asked Dec 11 '18 at 12:12
user984325user984325
246112
246112
add a comment |
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $(x,y)=(rcostheta,rsintheta)$, the 2 curves can be given parametrically as
begin{align}
vec{r}_1 &= big(a(1+costheta)costheta,a(1+costheta)sinthetabig) \
vec{r}_2 &= big(a(1-costheta)costheta,a(1-costheta)sinthetabig)
end{align}
Their tangent vectors are
begin{align}
vec{r}_1' &= big(a(-sintheta - sin2theta),a(costheta + cos2theta) big) \
vec{r}_2' &= big(a(-sintheta + sin2theta),a(costheta - cos2theta) big)
end{align}
Then
$$ vec{r}_1' cdot vec{r}_2' = a^2(sin^2theta - sin^2 2theta) + a^2(cos^2theta - cos^2 2theta) = 0 $$
i.e. $vec{r}_1'perp vec{r}_2' $
Alternatively, you can use
$$ frac{dy}{dx} = frac{frac{dx}{dtheta}}{frac{dy}{dtheta}} = frac{frac{dr}{dtheta}costheta - rsintheta}{frac{dr}{dtheta}sintheta + rcostheta} $$
to compute the tangent slopes that way
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Solution 1 : take a look at the following figure :
Representing the two cardioids we are working on and 2 circles described by $z=frac12(1+e^{i theta})$ and $z=frac12(i+ie^{i theta})$.
The 2 circles are orthogonal ; the cardioids being the images of these circles by conformal transformation $z to z^2$ (red circle gives magenta cardioid, cyan circle gives blue cardioid), the orthogonality is preserved.
Solution 2 : Sometimes, one of the best methods for studying a polar curve $r=r(theta)$ is to come back to its equivalent parametric representation under the form
$$x=r(theta)cos theta, y=r(theta)sin(theta)tag{1}$$
In particular, (1) permits to obtain easily the polar angle made by a tangent to a curve $r=r(theta)$ with the horizontal axis :
$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{dy(theta)}{dtheta}/frac{dx(theta)}{dtheta}= frac{r'(theta)sin theta+r(theta)cos(theta)}{r'(theta)cos theta-r(theta)sin(theta)}=frac{r'(theta)tan theta+r(theta)}{r'(theta)-r(theta)tan(theta)} .tag{1}$$
Besides, the condition for orthogonality of two curves at a certain intersection point $I$ is that the product of the slopes of their tangents at this point is $-1$, i.e.,
$$frac{dy_1}{dx} frac{dy_2}{dx}=-1$$
I think you have now all the ingredients for being able to terminate.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The angle between tangent line and a ray from pole of a polar curve is
$$tanpsi=dfrac{r}{r'}$$
then for these curves in every $theta$ on curves
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_1}{r'_1}=dfrac{a(1-costheta)}{asintheta}=tandfrac{theta}{2}$$
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_2}{r'_2}=dfrac{a(1+costheta)}{-asintheta}=-cotdfrac{theta}{2}$$
therefore
$$tanpsi_1tanpsi_2=-1$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $(x,y)=(rcostheta,rsintheta)$, the 2 curves can be given parametrically as
begin{align}
vec{r}_1 &= big(a(1+costheta)costheta,a(1+costheta)sinthetabig) \
vec{r}_2 &= big(a(1-costheta)costheta,a(1-costheta)sinthetabig)
end{align}
Their tangent vectors are
begin{align}
vec{r}_1' &= big(a(-sintheta - sin2theta),a(costheta + cos2theta) big) \
vec{r}_2' &= big(a(-sintheta + sin2theta),a(costheta - cos2theta) big)
end{align}
Then
$$ vec{r}_1' cdot vec{r}_2' = a^2(sin^2theta - sin^2 2theta) + a^2(cos^2theta - cos^2 2theta) = 0 $$
i.e. $vec{r}_1'perp vec{r}_2' $
Alternatively, you can use
$$ frac{dy}{dx} = frac{frac{dx}{dtheta}}{frac{dy}{dtheta}} = frac{frac{dr}{dtheta}costheta - rsintheta}{frac{dr}{dtheta}sintheta + rcostheta} $$
to compute the tangent slopes that way
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $(x,y)=(rcostheta,rsintheta)$, the 2 curves can be given parametrically as
begin{align}
vec{r}_1 &= big(a(1+costheta)costheta,a(1+costheta)sinthetabig) \
vec{r}_2 &= big(a(1-costheta)costheta,a(1-costheta)sinthetabig)
end{align}
Their tangent vectors are
begin{align}
vec{r}_1' &= big(a(-sintheta - sin2theta),a(costheta + cos2theta) big) \
vec{r}_2' &= big(a(-sintheta + sin2theta),a(costheta - cos2theta) big)
end{align}
Then
$$ vec{r}_1' cdot vec{r}_2' = a^2(sin^2theta - sin^2 2theta) + a^2(cos^2theta - cos^2 2theta) = 0 $$
i.e. $vec{r}_1'perp vec{r}_2' $
Alternatively, you can use
$$ frac{dy}{dx} = frac{frac{dx}{dtheta}}{frac{dy}{dtheta}} = frac{frac{dr}{dtheta}costheta - rsintheta}{frac{dr}{dtheta}sintheta + rcostheta} $$
to compute the tangent slopes that way
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $(x,y)=(rcostheta,rsintheta)$, the 2 curves can be given parametrically as
begin{align}
vec{r}_1 &= big(a(1+costheta)costheta,a(1+costheta)sinthetabig) \
vec{r}_2 &= big(a(1-costheta)costheta,a(1-costheta)sinthetabig)
end{align}
Their tangent vectors are
begin{align}
vec{r}_1' &= big(a(-sintheta - sin2theta),a(costheta + cos2theta) big) \
vec{r}_2' &= big(a(-sintheta + sin2theta),a(costheta - cos2theta) big)
end{align}
Then
$$ vec{r}_1' cdot vec{r}_2' = a^2(sin^2theta - sin^2 2theta) + a^2(cos^2theta - cos^2 2theta) = 0 $$
i.e. $vec{r}_1'perp vec{r}_2' $
Alternatively, you can use
$$ frac{dy}{dx} = frac{frac{dx}{dtheta}}{frac{dy}{dtheta}} = frac{frac{dr}{dtheta}costheta - rsintheta}{frac{dr}{dtheta}sintheta + rcostheta} $$
to compute the tangent slopes that way
$endgroup$
Since $(x,y)=(rcostheta,rsintheta)$, the 2 curves can be given parametrically as
begin{align}
vec{r}_1 &= big(a(1+costheta)costheta,a(1+costheta)sinthetabig) \
vec{r}_2 &= big(a(1-costheta)costheta,a(1-costheta)sinthetabig)
end{align}
Their tangent vectors are
begin{align}
vec{r}_1' &= big(a(-sintheta - sin2theta),a(costheta + cos2theta) big) \
vec{r}_2' &= big(a(-sintheta + sin2theta),a(costheta - cos2theta) big)
end{align}
Then
$$ vec{r}_1' cdot vec{r}_2' = a^2(sin^2theta - sin^2 2theta) + a^2(cos^2theta - cos^2 2theta) = 0 $$
i.e. $vec{r}_1'perp vec{r}_2' $
Alternatively, you can use
$$ frac{dy}{dx} = frac{frac{dx}{dtheta}}{frac{dy}{dtheta}} = frac{frac{dr}{dtheta}costheta - rsintheta}{frac{dr}{dtheta}sintheta + rcostheta} $$
to compute the tangent slopes that way
answered Dec 11 '18 at 12:34
DylanDylan
14.2k31127
14.2k31127
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Solution 1 : take a look at the following figure :
Representing the two cardioids we are working on and 2 circles described by $z=frac12(1+e^{i theta})$ and $z=frac12(i+ie^{i theta})$.
The 2 circles are orthogonal ; the cardioids being the images of these circles by conformal transformation $z to z^2$ (red circle gives magenta cardioid, cyan circle gives blue cardioid), the orthogonality is preserved.
Solution 2 : Sometimes, one of the best methods for studying a polar curve $r=r(theta)$ is to come back to its equivalent parametric representation under the form
$$x=r(theta)cos theta, y=r(theta)sin(theta)tag{1}$$
In particular, (1) permits to obtain easily the polar angle made by a tangent to a curve $r=r(theta)$ with the horizontal axis :
$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{dy(theta)}{dtheta}/frac{dx(theta)}{dtheta}= frac{r'(theta)sin theta+r(theta)cos(theta)}{r'(theta)cos theta-r(theta)sin(theta)}=frac{r'(theta)tan theta+r(theta)}{r'(theta)-r(theta)tan(theta)} .tag{1}$$
Besides, the condition for orthogonality of two curves at a certain intersection point $I$ is that the product of the slopes of their tangents at this point is $-1$, i.e.,
$$frac{dy_1}{dx} frac{dy_2}{dx}=-1$$
I think you have now all the ingredients for being able to terminate.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Solution 1 : take a look at the following figure :
Representing the two cardioids we are working on and 2 circles described by $z=frac12(1+e^{i theta})$ and $z=frac12(i+ie^{i theta})$.
The 2 circles are orthogonal ; the cardioids being the images of these circles by conformal transformation $z to z^2$ (red circle gives magenta cardioid, cyan circle gives blue cardioid), the orthogonality is preserved.
Solution 2 : Sometimes, one of the best methods for studying a polar curve $r=r(theta)$ is to come back to its equivalent parametric representation under the form
$$x=r(theta)cos theta, y=r(theta)sin(theta)tag{1}$$
In particular, (1) permits to obtain easily the polar angle made by a tangent to a curve $r=r(theta)$ with the horizontal axis :
$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{dy(theta)}{dtheta}/frac{dx(theta)}{dtheta}= frac{r'(theta)sin theta+r(theta)cos(theta)}{r'(theta)cos theta-r(theta)sin(theta)}=frac{r'(theta)tan theta+r(theta)}{r'(theta)-r(theta)tan(theta)} .tag{1}$$
Besides, the condition for orthogonality of two curves at a certain intersection point $I$ is that the product of the slopes of their tangents at this point is $-1$, i.e.,
$$frac{dy_1}{dx} frac{dy_2}{dx}=-1$$
I think you have now all the ingredients for being able to terminate.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Solution 1 : take a look at the following figure :
Representing the two cardioids we are working on and 2 circles described by $z=frac12(1+e^{i theta})$ and $z=frac12(i+ie^{i theta})$.
The 2 circles are orthogonal ; the cardioids being the images of these circles by conformal transformation $z to z^2$ (red circle gives magenta cardioid, cyan circle gives blue cardioid), the orthogonality is preserved.
Solution 2 : Sometimes, one of the best methods for studying a polar curve $r=r(theta)$ is to come back to its equivalent parametric representation under the form
$$x=r(theta)cos theta, y=r(theta)sin(theta)tag{1}$$
In particular, (1) permits to obtain easily the polar angle made by a tangent to a curve $r=r(theta)$ with the horizontal axis :
$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{dy(theta)}{dtheta}/frac{dx(theta)}{dtheta}= frac{r'(theta)sin theta+r(theta)cos(theta)}{r'(theta)cos theta-r(theta)sin(theta)}=frac{r'(theta)tan theta+r(theta)}{r'(theta)-r(theta)tan(theta)} .tag{1}$$
Besides, the condition for orthogonality of two curves at a certain intersection point $I$ is that the product of the slopes of their tangents at this point is $-1$, i.e.,
$$frac{dy_1}{dx} frac{dy_2}{dx}=-1$$
I think you have now all the ingredients for being able to terminate.
$endgroup$
Solution 1 : take a look at the following figure :
Representing the two cardioids we are working on and 2 circles described by $z=frac12(1+e^{i theta})$ and $z=frac12(i+ie^{i theta})$.
The 2 circles are orthogonal ; the cardioids being the images of these circles by conformal transformation $z to z^2$ (red circle gives magenta cardioid, cyan circle gives blue cardioid), the orthogonality is preserved.
Solution 2 : Sometimes, one of the best methods for studying a polar curve $r=r(theta)$ is to come back to its equivalent parametric representation under the form
$$x=r(theta)cos theta, y=r(theta)sin(theta)tag{1}$$
In particular, (1) permits to obtain easily the polar angle made by a tangent to a curve $r=r(theta)$ with the horizontal axis :
$$frac{dy}{dx} = frac{dy(theta)}{dtheta}/frac{dx(theta)}{dtheta}= frac{r'(theta)sin theta+r(theta)cos(theta)}{r'(theta)cos theta-r(theta)sin(theta)}=frac{r'(theta)tan theta+r(theta)}{r'(theta)-r(theta)tan(theta)} .tag{1}$$
Besides, the condition for orthogonality of two curves at a certain intersection point $I$ is that the product of the slopes of their tangents at this point is $-1$, i.e.,
$$frac{dy_1}{dx} frac{dy_2}{dx}=-1$$
I think you have now all the ingredients for being able to terminate.
edited Dec 13 '18 at 14:46
answered Dec 11 '18 at 12:46
Jean MarieJean Marie
31k42255
31k42255
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
Take a look to my second solution.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 14:47
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
$begingroup$
+1. Your description with complex form is great :)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 13 '18 at 18:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The angle between tangent line and a ray from pole of a polar curve is
$$tanpsi=dfrac{r}{r'}$$
then for these curves in every $theta$ on curves
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_1}{r'_1}=dfrac{a(1-costheta)}{asintheta}=tandfrac{theta}{2}$$
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_2}{r'_2}=dfrac{a(1+costheta)}{-asintheta}=-cotdfrac{theta}{2}$$
therefore
$$tanpsi_1tanpsi_2=-1$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The angle between tangent line and a ray from pole of a polar curve is
$$tanpsi=dfrac{r}{r'}$$
then for these curves in every $theta$ on curves
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_1}{r'_1}=dfrac{a(1-costheta)}{asintheta}=tandfrac{theta}{2}$$
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_2}{r'_2}=dfrac{a(1+costheta)}{-asintheta}=-cotdfrac{theta}{2}$$
therefore
$$tanpsi_1tanpsi_2=-1$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The angle between tangent line and a ray from pole of a polar curve is
$$tanpsi=dfrac{r}{r'}$$
then for these curves in every $theta$ on curves
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_1}{r'_1}=dfrac{a(1-costheta)}{asintheta}=tandfrac{theta}{2}$$
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_2}{r'_2}=dfrac{a(1+costheta)}{-asintheta}=-cotdfrac{theta}{2}$$
therefore
$$tanpsi_1tanpsi_2=-1$$
$endgroup$
The angle between tangent line and a ray from pole of a polar curve is
$$tanpsi=dfrac{r}{r'}$$
then for these curves in every $theta$ on curves
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_1}{r'_1}=dfrac{a(1-costheta)}{asintheta}=tandfrac{theta}{2}$$
$$tanpsi_1=dfrac{r_2}{r'_2}=dfrac{a(1+costheta)}{-asintheta}=-cotdfrac{theta}{2}$$
therefore
$$tanpsi_1tanpsi_2=-1$$
edited Dec 11 '18 at 13:11
answered Dec 11 '18 at 12:47
NosratiNosrati
26.5k62354
26.5k62354
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
You are right : using formula $tan V = r/r'$ taking the polar axis (instead of the $x$ axis) as the reference axis for angles yield very simple computations. The formulas I gave (with angles referencing to $x$-axis) are more complicated, but have the advantage to be in connection with what the OP has already seen about parametrized curves.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 11 '18 at 17:22
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
@JeanMarie Thank you. I appreciate your comment which verifies my answer ;)
$endgroup$
– Nosrati
Dec 11 '18 at 19:16
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
$begingroup$
I have had the idea of a very different (and short) solution that I have "prepended" to the other one.
$endgroup$
– Jean Marie
Dec 13 '18 at 15:31
add a comment |
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