How can I prove non-geometrically that there is a bijective correspondence between polar and cartesian...
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We have a function $f: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $f(x,y) = (sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$, $tan^{-1}left(frac{y}{x}right))$ which takes a Cartesian pair $(x,y)$ to its polar form, and a function $g: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $g(r,theta) = (rcostheta, rsintheta)$, which takes a polar pair $(r, theta)$ to its Cartesian representation.
I'm having trouble proving that there's a bijective correspondence between the two representations. It is easy to show, for instance, that $f circ g = text{id}_{mathbb{R}^2}$, but not quite as easy to show the other direction.
Any hints or help would be appreciated.
--
Edit: I have also tried messing around with injectivity and surjectivity between the two functions, so that the one-way composition-identity equality suffices to prove that the two functions are inverses. But I run into the same problems, which the below answer resolves by using trig identities. Is there a way to circumvent this?
coordinate-systems polar-coordinates
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show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
We have a function $f: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $f(x,y) = (sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$, $tan^{-1}left(frac{y}{x}right))$ which takes a Cartesian pair $(x,y)$ to its polar form, and a function $g: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $g(r,theta) = (rcostheta, rsintheta)$, which takes a polar pair $(r, theta)$ to its Cartesian representation.
I'm having trouble proving that there's a bijective correspondence between the two representations. It is easy to show, for instance, that $f circ g = text{id}_{mathbb{R}^2}$, but not quite as easy to show the other direction.
Any hints or help would be appreciated.
--
Edit: I have also tried messing around with injectivity and surjectivity between the two functions, so that the one-way composition-identity equality suffices to prove that the two functions are inverses. But I run into the same problems, which the below answer resolves by using trig identities. Is there a way to circumvent this?
coordinate-systems polar-coordinates
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Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
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– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
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Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
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– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
1
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There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
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– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
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The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
We have a function $f: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $f(x,y) = (sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$, $tan^{-1}left(frac{y}{x}right))$ which takes a Cartesian pair $(x,y)$ to its polar form, and a function $g: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $g(r,theta) = (rcostheta, rsintheta)$, which takes a polar pair $(r, theta)$ to its Cartesian representation.
I'm having trouble proving that there's a bijective correspondence between the two representations. It is easy to show, for instance, that $f circ g = text{id}_{mathbb{R}^2}$, but not quite as easy to show the other direction.
Any hints or help would be appreciated.
--
Edit: I have also tried messing around with injectivity and surjectivity between the two functions, so that the one-way composition-identity equality suffices to prove that the two functions are inverses. But I run into the same problems, which the below answer resolves by using trig identities. Is there a way to circumvent this?
coordinate-systems polar-coordinates
$endgroup$
We have a function $f: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $f(x,y) = (sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$, $tan^{-1}left(frac{y}{x}right))$ which takes a Cartesian pair $(x,y)$ to its polar form, and a function $g: mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ as $g(r,theta) = (rcostheta, rsintheta)$, which takes a polar pair $(r, theta)$ to its Cartesian representation.
I'm having trouble proving that there's a bijective correspondence between the two representations. It is easy to show, for instance, that $f circ g = text{id}_{mathbb{R}^2}$, but not quite as easy to show the other direction.
Any hints or help would be appreciated.
--
Edit: I have also tried messing around with injectivity and surjectivity between the two functions, so that the one-way composition-identity equality suffices to prove that the two functions are inverses. But I run into the same problems, which the below answer resolves by using trig identities. Is there a way to circumvent this?
coordinate-systems polar-coordinates
coordinate-systems polar-coordinates
edited Feb 21 '15 at 21:04
jwalk
asked Feb 21 '15 at 20:41
jwalkjwalk
1266
1266
$begingroup$
Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
$endgroup$
– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
$begingroup$
Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
1
$begingroup$
There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
$endgroup$
– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
$begingroup$
Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
1
$begingroup$
There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
$endgroup$
– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
$begingroup$
Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
$endgroup$
– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
$begingroup$
Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
$begingroup$
Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
1
1
$begingroup$
There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53
|
show 2 more comments
1 Answer
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Substitute $r= sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $theta = arctan(frac{y}{x})$ into $g$ and use the Relations for inverse trigonometric functions.
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$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Substitute $r= sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $theta = arctan(frac{y}{x})$ into $g$ and use the Relations for inverse trigonometric functions.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Substitute $r= sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $theta = arctan(frac{y}{x})$ into $g$ and use the Relations for inverse trigonometric functions.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Substitute $r= sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $theta = arctan(frac{y}{x})$ into $g$ and use the Relations for inverse trigonometric functions.
$endgroup$
Substitute $r= sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ and $theta = arctan(frac{y}{x})$ into $g$ and use the Relations for inverse trigonometric functions.
answered Feb 21 '15 at 20:46
kryomaximkryomaxim
2,3621825
2,3621825
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
$begingroup$
Amazing! Though, that sure was not worth spending hours trying to figure out. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:51
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Have you restricted $r$ and $theta$ at all?
$endgroup$
– pjs36
Feb 21 '15 at 20:42
$begingroup$
Yes, I also have assumed that $rge 0$ and $-pi < theta < pi$.
$endgroup$
– jwalk
Feb 21 '15 at 20:44
1
$begingroup$
There is no bijective correspondence if you allow $r=0$. If $r=0$ then $theta$ can be anything without changing the point.
$endgroup$
– Matt Samuel
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
The function is not defined for $x=0$. You need to use something like $operatorname{arg}$ (or $operatorname{atan2}$) instead, and you need to remove $(0,0)$ from the domain.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:45
$begingroup$
Note that the way $f_2$ is defined does not distinguish between $(x,y)$ and $-(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Feb 21 '15 at 20:53