Prove the upper bound of expectations using almost sure convergence
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Let $(X_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of iid random variables. Given that $X_n$ converge almost surely to $x_0in [m, M]$, where $0<m<M<1$, I try to find the upper bounds of $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right)$ and $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right)$.
My calculations:
Since $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $epsilon$ such that $X_n ge x_0 -epsilon ge m - epsilon$. If we choose $epsilon = dfrac{m}{2}$, we obtain $X_n ge dfrac{m}{2}$. We get $dfrac{1}{X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Similarly, using again the property $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $delta$ such that $X_n le x_0 + delta le 1 - m + delta$, this implies $1-X_n ge m - delta$. Therefore if we choose $delta = m/2$, we obtain $dfrac{1}{1-X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Then we can conclude that for $n$ large enough
$$
mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}quadtext{ and }quad mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}.
$$
However, I have a doubt about my results. Indeed, the upper bounds of $1/X_n$ and $1/(1-X_n)$ are only true for $n ge N(omega)$ (where $omegainOmega$ of the probability space), so we have also a dependence on $omega$ and taking the expectations over $Omega$ makes a problem!! Furthermore, when we say the upper bounds of the expectations are valid for "$n$ large enough", this seems vague. But I'm not sure. So I would be appreciated for any comment of suggestion that helps to make clear this point. Thank you very much.
probability probability-theory convergence almost-everywhere
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(X_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of iid random variables. Given that $X_n$ converge almost surely to $x_0in [m, M]$, where $0<m<M<1$, I try to find the upper bounds of $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right)$ and $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right)$.
My calculations:
Since $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $epsilon$ such that $X_n ge x_0 -epsilon ge m - epsilon$. If we choose $epsilon = dfrac{m}{2}$, we obtain $X_n ge dfrac{m}{2}$. We get $dfrac{1}{X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Similarly, using again the property $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $delta$ such that $X_n le x_0 + delta le 1 - m + delta$, this implies $1-X_n ge m - delta$. Therefore if we choose $delta = m/2$, we obtain $dfrac{1}{1-X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Then we can conclude that for $n$ large enough
$$
mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}quadtext{ and }quad mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}.
$$
However, I have a doubt about my results. Indeed, the upper bounds of $1/X_n$ and $1/(1-X_n)$ are only true for $n ge N(omega)$ (where $omegainOmega$ of the probability space), so we have also a dependence on $omega$ and taking the expectations over $Omega$ makes a problem!! Furthermore, when we say the upper bounds of the expectations are valid for "$n$ large enough", this seems vague. But I'm not sure. So I would be appreciated for any comment of suggestion that helps to make clear this point. Thank you very much.
probability probability-theory convergence almost-everywhere
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
1
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(X_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of iid random variables. Given that $X_n$ converge almost surely to $x_0in [m, M]$, where $0<m<M<1$, I try to find the upper bounds of $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right)$ and $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right)$.
My calculations:
Since $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $epsilon$ such that $X_n ge x_0 -epsilon ge m - epsilon$. If we choose $epsilon = dfrac{m}{2}$, we obtain $X_n ge dfrac{m}{2}$. We get $dfrac{1}{X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Similarly, using again the property $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $delta$ such that $X_n le x_0 + delta le 1 - m + delta$, this implies $1-X_n ge m - delta$. Therefore if we choose $delta = m/2$, we obtain $dfrac{1}{1-X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Then we can conclude that for $n$ large enough
$$
mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}quadtext{ and }quad mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}.
$$
However, I have a doubt about my results. Indeed, the upper bounds of $1/X_n$ and $1/(1-X_n)$ are only true for $n ge N(omega)$ (where $omegainOmega$ of the probability space), so we have also a dependence on $omega$ and taking the expectations over $Omega$ makes a problem!! Furthermore, when we say the upper bounds of the expectations are valid for "$n$ large enough", this seems vague. But I'm not sure. So I would be appreciated for any comment of suggestion that helps to make clear this point. Thank you very much.
probability probability-theory convergence almost-everywhere
$endgroup$
Let $(X_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of iid random variables. Given that $X_n$ converge almost surely to $x_0in [m, M]$, where $0<m<M<1$, I try to find the upper bounds of $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right)$ and $mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right)$.
My calculations:
Since $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $epsilon$ such that $X_n ge x_0 -epsilon ge m - epsilon$. If we choose $epsilon = dfrac{m}{2}$, we obtain $X_n ge dfrac{m}{2}$. We get $dfrac{1}{X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Similarly, using again the property $X_n underset{nto +infty}{longrightarrow} x_0$ a.s, there exists $delta$ such that $X_n le x_0 + delta le 1 - m + delta$, this implies $1-X_n ge m - delta$. Therefore if we choose $delta = m/2$, we obtain $dfrac{1}{1-X_n} le dfrac{2}{m}$ a.s.
Then we can conclude that for $n$ large enough
$$
mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}quadtext{ and }quad mathbb{E}left(dfrac{1}{1-X_n}right) le frac{2}{m}.
$$
However, I have a doubt about my results. Indeed, the upper bounds of $1/X_n$ and $1/(1-X_n)$ are only true for $n ge N(omega)$ (where $omegainOmega$ of the probability space), so we have also a dependence on $omega$ and taking the expectations over $Omega$ makes a problem!! Furthermore, when we say the upper bounds of the expectations are valid for "$n$ large enough", this seems vague. But I'm not sure. So I would be appreciated for any comment of suggestion that helps to make clear this point. Thank you very much.
probability probability-theory convergence almost-everywhere
probability probability-theory convergence almost-everywhere
asked Dec 3 '18 at 21:39
EmilyEmily
61
61
$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
1
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
1
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47
$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
1
1
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
1
1
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Try Fatour's lemma better.
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 3 '18 at 22:18
1
$begingroup$
Since the sequence converges to a constant, then the elements of the sequence cannot be identically distributed. Independent, they may.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:40
1
$begingroup$
The fact the the sequence ${X_n}$ converges to the constant $x_0$ says nothing at all about what happens to the elements of the sequence, their domain, support, moments, etc. So really these bounds cannot be determined at all.
$endgroup$
– Alecos Papadopoulos
Dec 4 '18 at 3:47