Prove the norm of operator derived from orthogonal projections is less or equal to 1












2












$begingroup$


Suppose $H$ is a Hilbert space. We have two orthogonal projections $P_1: Hrightarrow A_1$ and $P_2: Hrightarrow A_2$. Here $A_1$ and $A_2$ are two closed subspace of $H$. Prove that
$$
lVert P_1 - P_2rVert le 1
$$



Any hints may help. Thank you.










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $H$ is a Hilbert space. We have two orthogonal projections $P_1: Hrightarrow A_1$ and $P_2: Hrightarrow A_2$. Here $A_1$ and $A_2$ are two closed subspace of $H$. Prove that
    $$
    lVert P_1 - P_2rVert le 1
    $$



    Any hints may help. Thank you.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $H$ is a Hilbert space. We have two orthogonal projections $P_1: Hrightarrow A_1$ and $P_2: Hrightarrow A_2$. Here $A_1$ and $A_2$ are two closed subspace of $H$. Prove that
      $$
      lVert P_1 - P_2rVert le 1
      $$



      Any hints may help. Thank you.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Suppose $H$ is a Hilbert space. We have two orthogonal projections $P_1: Hrightarrow A_1$ and $P_2: Hrightarrow A_2$. Here $A_1$ and $A_2$ are two closed subspace of $H$. Prove that
      $$
      lVert P_1 - P_2rVert le 1
      $$



      Any hints may help. Thank you.







      linear-algebra functional-analysis






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      asked Dec 3 '18 at 21:55









      SyuizenSyuizen

      934411




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          3 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          HINT:



          Note that it suffices to show that for any orthogonal projection $P$ on $H$, then $|P-frac{1}{2}I|=frac{1}{2}$ or $|2P-I|=1$, where $I$ is the identity operator on $H$. To show this, note that $2P-I$ is a unitary.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            You can write $A_1 = B_1oplus (A_1cap A_2)$ and $A_2=B_2oplus(A_1cap A_2)$ where $oplus$ is an orthogonal decomposition. Then
            $$
            P_{A_1}=P_{B_1}+P_{A_1cap A_2}\
            P_{A_2}=P_{B_2}+P_{A_1cap A_2},
            $$



            where the $P_{X}$ is the orthogonal projection onto $X$. So
            $$
            P_{A_1}-P_{A_2}=P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}.
            $$



            Because $B_1perp B_2$, it is easy to see that $|P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}|le 1$ because
            $$
            |P_{B_1}x-P_{B_2}x|^2=|P_{B_1}x|^2+|P_{B_1}x|^2=|P_{B_1oplus B_2}x|^2le |x|^2.
            $$






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            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
              $endgroup$
              – Syuizen
              Dec 4 '18 at 14:27



















            0












            $begingroup$

            For any $xin H$ with $|x|=1$, we have for an orthogonal projection $P$ $$langle Px,xrangle=langle P^*Px,xrangle=langle Px,Pxrangle=|Px|^2leq |Px|^2+|(I-P)x|^2=|x|^2=1.$$
            So
            $$
            langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle=langle P_1x,xrangle-langle P_2x,xranglein[-1,1],
            $$

            since is it a difference of two numbers each in $[0,1]$.



            For any selfadjoint operator $T$, we have $|T|=sup{|langle Tx,xrangle: |x|=1}$. So
            $$
            |P_1-P_2|=sup{|langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle|: |x|=1}leq1.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
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              1












              $begingroup$

              HINT:



              Note that it suffices to show that for any orthogonal projection $P$ on $H$, then $|P-frac{1}{2}I|=frac{1}{2}$ or $|2P-I|=1$, where $I$ is the identity operator on $H$. To show this, note that $2P-I$ is a unitary.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                HINT:



                Note that it suffices to show that for any orthogonal projection $P$ on $H$, then $|P-frac{1}{2}I|=frac{1}{2}$ or $|2P-I|=1$, where $I$ is the identity operator on $H$. To show this, note that $2P-I$ is a unitary.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  HINT:



                  Note that it suffices to show that for any orthogonal projection $P$ on $H$, then $|P-frac{1}{2}I|=frac{1}{2}$ or $|2P-I|=1$, where $I$ is the identity operator on $H$. To show this, note that $2P-I$ is a unitary.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  HINT:



                  Note that it suffices to show that for any orthogonal projection $P$ on $H$, then $|P-frac{1}{2}I|=frac{1}{2}$ or $|2P-I|=1$, where $I$ is the identity operator on $H$. To show this, note that $2P-I$ is a unitary.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 3 '18 at 23:02









                  AweyganAweygan

                  14.3k21441




                  14.3k21441























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      You can write $A_1 = B_1oplus (A_1cap A_2)$ and $A_2=B_2oplus(A_1cap A_2)$ where $oplus$ is an orthogonal decomposition. Then
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}=P_{B_1}+P_{A_1cap A_2}\
                      P_{A_2}=P_{B_2}+P_{A_1cap A_2},
                      $$



                      where the $P_{X}$ is the orthogonal projection onto $X$. So
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}-P_{A_2}=P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}.
                      $$



                      Because $B_1perp B_2$, it is easy to see that $|P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}|le 1$ because
                      $$
                      |P_{B_1}x-P_{B_2}x|^2=|P_{B_1}x|^2+|P_{B_1}x|^2=|P_{B_1oplus B_2}x|^2le |x|^2.
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Syuizen
                        Dec 4 '18 at 14:27
















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      You can write $A_1 = B_1oplus (A_1cap A_2)$ and $A_2=B_2oplus(A_1cap A_2)$ where $oplus$ is an orthogonal decomposition. Then
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}=P_{B_1}+P_{A_1cap A_2}\
                      P_{A_2}=P_{B_2}+P_{A_1cap A_2},
                      $$



                      where the $P_{X}$ is the orthogonal projection onto $X$. So
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}-P_{A_2}=P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}.
                      $$



                      Because $B_1perp B_2$, it is easy to see that $|P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}|le 1$ because
                      $$
                      |P_{B_1}x-P_{B_2}x|^2=|P_{B_1}x|^2+|P_{B_1}x|^2=|P_{B_1oplus B_2}x|^2le |x|^2.
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Syuizen
                        Dec 4 '18 at 14:27














                      0












                      0








                      0





                      $begingroup$

                      You can write $A_1 = B_1oplus (A_1cap A_2)$ and $A_2=B_2oplus(A_1cap A_2)$ where $oplus$ is an orthogonal decomposition. Then
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}=P_{B_1}+P_{A_1cap A_2}\
                      P_{A_2}=P_{B_2}+P_{A_1cap A_2},
                      $$



                      where the $P_{X}$ is the orthogonal projection onto $X$. So
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}-P_{A_2}=P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}.
                      $$



                      Because $B_1perp B_2$, it is easy to see that $|P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}|le 1$ because
                      $$
                      |P_{B_1}x-P_{B_2}x|^2=|P_{B_1}x|^2+|P_{B_1}x|^2=|P_{B_1oplus B_2}x|^2le |x|^2.
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      You can write $A_1 = B_1oplus (A_1cap A_2)$ and $A_2=B_2oplus(A_1cap A_2)$ where $oplus$ is an orthogonal decomposition. Then
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}=P_{B_1}+P_{A_1cap A_2}\
                      P_{A_2}=P_{B_2}+P_{A_1cap A_2},
                      $$



                      where the $P_{X}$ is the orthogonal projection onto $X$. So
                      $$
                      P_{A_1}-P_{A_2}=P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}.
                      $$



                      Because $B_1perp B_2$, it is easy to see that $|P_{B_1}-P_{B_2}|le 1$ because
                      $$
                      |P_{B_1}x-P_{B_2}x|^2=|P_{B_1}x|^2+|P_{B_1}x|^2=|P_{B_1oplus B_2}x|^2le |x|^2.
                      $$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 3 '18 at 23:03









                      DisintegratingByPartsDisintegratingByParts

                      59.5k42580




                      59.5k42580








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Syuizen
                        Dec 4 '18 at 14:27














                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Syuizen
                        Dec 4 '18 at 14:27








                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Syuizen
                      Dec 4 '18 at 14:27




                      $begingroup$
                      Why does $B_1perp B_2$ hold?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Syuizen
                      Dec 4 '18 at 14:27











                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      For any $xin H$ with $|x|=1$, we have for an orthogonal projection $P$ $$langle Px,xrangle=langle P^*Px,xrangle=langle Px,Pxrangle=|Px|^2leq |Px|^2+|(I-P)x|^2=|x|^2=1.$$
                      So
                      $$
                      langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle=langle P_1x,xrangle-langle P_2x,xranglein[-1,1],
                      $$

                      since is it a difference of two numbers each in $[0,1]$.



                      For any selfadjoint operator $T$, we have $|T|=sup{|langle Tx,xrangle: |x|=1}$. So
                      $$
                      |P_1-P_2|=sup{|langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle|: |x|=1}leq1.
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        For any $xin H$ with $|x|=1$, we have for an orthogonal projection $P$ $$langle Px,xrangle=langle P^*Px,xrangle=langle Px,Pxrangle=|Px|^2leq |Px|^2+|(I-P)x|^2=|x|^2=1.$$
                        So
                        $$
                        langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle=langle P_1x,xrangle-langle P_2x,xranglein[-1,1],
                        $$

                        since is it a difference of two numbers each in $[0,1]$.



                        For any selfadjoint operator $T$, we have $|T|=sup{|langle Tx,xrangle: |x|=1}$. So
                        $$
                        |P_1-P_2|=sup{|langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle|: |x|=1}leq1.
                        $$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          For any $xin H$ with $|x|=1$, we have for an orthogonal projection $P$ $$langle Px,xrangle=langle P^*Px,xrangle=langle Px,Pxrangle=|Px|^2leq |Px|^2+|(I-P)x|^2=|x|^2=1.$$
                          So
                          $$
                          langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle=langle P_1x,xrangle-langle P_2x,xranglein[-1,1],
                          $$

                          since is it a difference of two numbers each in $[0,1]$.



                          For any selfadjoint operator $T$, we have $|T|=sup{|langle Tx,xrangle: |x|=1}$. So
                          $$
                          |P_1-P_2|=sup{|langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle|: |x|=1}leq1.
                          $$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          For any $xin H$ with $|x|=1$, we have for an orthogonal projection $P$ $$langle Px,xrangle=langle P^*Px,xrangle=langle Px,Pxrangle=|Px|^2leq |Px|^2+|(I-P)x|^2=|x|^2=1.$$
                          So
                          $$
                          langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle=langle P_1x,xrangle-langle P_2x,xranglein[-1,1],
                          $$

                          since is it a difference of two numbers each in $[0,1]$.



                          For any selfadjoint operator $T$, we have $|T|=sup{|langle Tx,xrangle: |x|=1}$. So
                          $$
                          |P_1-P_2|=sup{|langle (P_1-P_2)x,xrangle|: |x|=1}leq1.
                          $$







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                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 4 '18 at 1:59









                          Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

                          127k1182183




                          127k1182183






























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