Let $X,Y$ have the same distribution on common prob space, do they generate same $sigma$-algebra?












8












$begingroup$


So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.



$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and



$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$



Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.



Any help would be appreciated










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$endgroup$








  • 8




    $begingroup$
    Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Apr 10 '16 at 16:57










  • $begingroup$
    @Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
    $endgroup$
    – them
    Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
















8












$begingroup$


So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.



$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and



$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$



Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.



Any help would be appreciated










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 8




    $begingroup$
    Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Apr 10 '16 at 16:57










  • $begingroup$
    @Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
    $endgroup$
    – them
    Apr 10 '16 at 17:02














8












8








8


2



$begingroup$


So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.



$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and



$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$



Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.



Any help would be appreciated










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.



$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and



$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$



Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.



Any help would be appreciated







probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 10 '16 at 16:48







them

















asked Apr 10 '16 at 16:42









themthem

296214




296214








  • 8




    $begingroup$
    Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Apr 10 '16 at 16:57










  • $begingroup$
    @Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
    $endgroup$
    – them
    Apr 10 '16 at 17:02














  • 8




    $begingroup$
    Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Apr 10 '16 at 16:57










  • $begingroup$
    @Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
    $endgroup$
    – them
    Apr 10 '16 at 17:02








8




8




$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57




$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57












$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02




$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02










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$begingroup$

Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.



I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.



Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.






share|cite|improve this answer











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    0












    $begingroup$

    Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.



    I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.



    Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.



      I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.



      Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.



        I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.



        Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.



        I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.



        Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        answered Dec 2 '18 at 15:55


























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        Davide Giraudo































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