Let $X,Y$ have the same distribution on common prob space, do they generate same $sigma$-algebra?
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So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.
$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and
$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$
Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.
Any help would be appreciated
probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.
$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and
$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$
Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.
Any help would be appreciated
probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
8
$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.
$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and
$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$
Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.
Any help would be appreciated
probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure
$endgroup$
So let $X,Y$ be real random variables on common probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$, the measures on Borel $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}})$ induced by $X$ and $Y$ are equal, that is for all $A in mathcal{B}_{mathbb{R}}$.
$$ P_{X}(A) = P_{Y}(A)$$
where
$$P_{X}(A) := P(X^{-1}(A))$$ and
$$P_{Y}(A) := P(Y^{-1}(A))$$
Do $X,Y$ generate the same $sigma-$algebra? I feel that it might not be necessarily the case but was not able to construct a counter example.
Any help would be appreciated
probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure
probability measure-theory lebesgue-measure
edited Apr 10 '16 at 16:48
them
asked Apr 10 '16 at 16:42
themthem
296214
296214
8
$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
add a comment |
8
$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
8
8
$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.
I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.
I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.
I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.
I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.
$endgroup$
Take a probability space $left(Omega,mathcal F, mathbb Pright)$ with two independent identically distributed random variables $X$ and $Y$ which are not almost surely constant. Then the law are equal but the the generated $sigma$-algebras can not the same, since they would be independent and would contain an event whose probability is neither $0$ nor $1$.
I rewrite the example given by Did: let $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel $sigma$-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
Overall, we could not define an independent identically distributed sequence of non-constant random variable if having the same distribution would imply having the same generated $sigma$-algebra.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 15:55
community wiki
Davide Giraudo
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$begingroup$
Your feeling is right, try $Omega=[0,1]^2$ with the Borel sigma-algebra and the Lebesgue measure and the random variables $X$ and $Y$ defined by $X(x,y)=x$ and $Y(x,y)=y$.
$endgroup$
– Did
Apr 10 '16 at 16:57
$begingroup$
@Did, Thanks, that answers my question.
$endgroup$
– them
Apr 10 '16 at 17:02