Calculating variance of poisson distributed random variable
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I am calculating variance of a Poisson distributed random variable with mean $lambda$. I am doing it in the following way:
$mathbb{V}(X) = mathbb{E}(X^2) - lambda^2 \
= sum_{xgeq 0} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!} - lambda^2\
= 0 + lambda e^{-lambda} + sum_{xgeq 2} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!}-lambda^2\
= lambda e^{-lambda} + e^{-lambda}lambda^2sum_{xgeq 2} quad frac{lambda^{x-2}}{(x-2)!}\
=lambda e^{-lambda} + lambda^2 -lambda^2\
=lambda e^{-lambda}$
The answer is wrong. But I cannot understand what am I doing wrong in breaking the summation on line 3.
Edit: shown step 4 to answer a comment
self-study poisson-distribution arithmetic
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|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I am calculating variance of a Poisson distributed random variable with mean $lambda$. I am doing it in the following way:
$mathbb{V}(X) = mathbb{E}(X^2) - lambda^2 \
= sum_{xgeq 0} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!} - lambda^2\
= 0 + lambda e^{-lambda} + sum_{xgeq 2} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!}-lambda^2\
= lambda e^{-lambda} + e^{-lambda}lambda^2sum_{xgeq 2} quad frac{lambda^{x-2}}{(x-2)!}\
=lambda e^{-lambda} + lambda^2 -lambda^2\
=lambda e^{-lambda}$
The answer is wrong. But I cannot understand what am I doing wrong in breaking the summation on line 3.
Edit: shown step 4 to answer a comment
self-study poisson-distribution arithmetic
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How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
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– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
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I have added a step.
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– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
1
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Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
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– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
5
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Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
1
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I am calculating variance of a Poisson distributed random variable with mean $lambda$. I am doing it in the following way:
$mathbb{V}(X) = mathbb{E}(X^2) - lambda^2 \
= sum_{xgeq 0} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!} - lambda^2\
= 0 + lambda e^{-lambda} + sum_{xgeq 2} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!}-lambda^2\
= lambda e^{-lambda} + e^{-lambda}lambda^2sum_{xgeq 2} quad frac{lambda^{x-2}}{(x-2)!}\
=lambda e^{-lambda} + lambda^2 -lambda^2\
=lambda e^{-lambda}$
The answer is wrong. But I cannot understand what am I doing wrong in breaking the summation on line 3.
Edit: shown step 4 to answer a comment
self-study poisson-distribution arithmetic
$endgroup$
I am calculating variance of a Poisson distributed random variable with mean $lambda$. I am doing it in the following way:
$mathbb{V}(X) = mathbb{E}(X^2) - lambda^2 \
= sum_{xgeq 0} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!} - lambda^2\
= 0 + lambda e^{-lambda} + sum_{xgeq 2} quad x^2frac{e^{-lambda} quadlambda^x}{x!}-lambda^2\
= lambda e^{-lambda} + e^{-lambda}lambda^2sum_{xgeq 2} quad frac{lambda^{x-2}}{(x-2)!}\
=lambda e^{-lambda} + lambda^2 -lambda^2\
=lambda e^{-lambda}$
The answer is wrong. But I cannot understand what am I doing wrong in breaking the summation on line 3.
Edit: shown step 4 to answer a comment
self-study poisson-distribution arithmetic
self-study poisson-distribution arithmetic
edited Feb 10 at 22:26
whuber♦
204k33443813
204k33443813
asked Feb 10 at 21:23
anotheroneanotherone
1326
1326
$begingroup$
How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
$endgroup$
– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
$begingroup$
I have added a step.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
1
$begingroup$
Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
5
$begingroup$
Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
1
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
$endgroup$
– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
$begingroup$
I have added a step.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
1
$begingroup$
Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
5
$begingroup$
Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
1
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00
$begingroup$
How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
$endgroup$
– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
$begingroup$
How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
$endgroup$
– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
$begingroup$
I have added a step.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
$begingroup$
I have added a step.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
1
1
$begingroup$
Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
$begingroup$
Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
5
5
$begingroup$
Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
$begingroup$
Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
1
1
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The Poisson distribution is one of those distributions that involves a factorial denominator. This this type of distribution, the simplest way to find the raw and central moments is to first find the expected values of the falling factorials:
$$mathbb{E}((X)_r) = mathbb{E} bigg( X(X-1) cdots (X-r+1) bigg) = sum_{x=0}^infty x(x-1) cdots (x-r+1) cdot frac{lambda^x}{x!} e^{-lambda}.$$
Have a go at solving this infinite sum (it is relatively simple) and then you will have a general form for the expected value of the falling factorials of $X$. These are all polynomials in $X$, so they can be used to find any of the raw moments or central moments by appropriate arithmetic. In your particular case you want the variance, so you will want to look at the expected values of the falling factorials up to $r=2$.
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add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
The Poisson distribution is one of those distributions that involves a factorial denominator. This this type of distribution, the simplest way to find the raw and central moments is to first find the expected values of the falling factorials:
$$mathbb{E}((X)_r) = mathbb{E} bigg( X(X-1) cdots (X-r+1) bigg) = sum_{x=0}^infty x(x-1) cdots (x-r+1) cdot frac{lambda^x}{x!} e^{-lambda}.$$
Have a go at solving this infinite sum (it is relatively simple) and then you will have a general form for the expected value of the falling factorials of $X$. These are all polynomials in $X$, so they can be used to find any of the raw moments or central moments by appropriate arithmetic. In your particular case you want the variance, so you will want to look at the expected values of the falling factorials up to $r=2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Poisson distribution is one of those distributions that involves a factorial denominator. This this type of distribution, the simplest way to find the raw and central moments is to first find the expected values of the falling factorials:
$$mathbb{E}((X)_r) = mathbb{E} bigg( X(X-1) cdots (X-r+1) bigg) = sum_{x=0}^infty x(x-1) cdots (x-r+1) cdot frac{lambda^x}{x!} e^{-lambda}.$$
Have a go at solving this infinite sum (it is relatively simple) and then you will have a general form for the expected value of the falling factorials of $X$. These are all polynomials in $X$, so they can be used to find any of the raw moments or central moments by appropriate arithmetic. In your particular case you want the variance, so you will want to look at the expected values of the falling factorials up to $r=2$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The Poisson distribution is one of those distributions that involves a factorial denominator. This this type of distribution, the simplest way to find the raw and central moments is to first find the expected values of the falling factorials:
$$mathbb{E}((X)_r) = mathbb{E} bigg( X(X-1) cdots (X-r+1) bigg) = sum_{x=0}^infty x(x-1) cdots (x-r+1) cdot frac{lambda^x}{x!} e^{-lambda}.$$
Have a go at solving this infinite sum (it is relatively simple) and then you will have a general form for the expected value of the falling factorials of $X$. These are all polynomials in $X$, so they can be used to find any of the raw moments or central moments by appropriate arithmetic. In your particular case you want the variance, so you will want to look at the expected values of the falling factorials up to $r=2$.
$endgroup$
The Poisson distribution is one of those distributions that involves a factorial denominator. This this type of distribution, the simplest way to find the raw and central moments is to first find the expected values of the falling factorials:
$$mathbb{E}((X)_r) = mathbb{E} bigg( X(X-1) cdots (X-r+1) bigg) = sum_{x=0}^infty x(x-1) cdots (x-r+1) cdot frac{lambda^x}{x!} e^{-lambda}.$$
Have a go at solving this infinite sum (it is relatively simple) and then you will have a general form for the expected value of the falling factorials of $X$. These are all polynomials in $X$, so they can be used to find any of the raw moments or central moments by appropriate arithmetic. In your particular case you want the variance, so you will want to look at the expected values of the falling factorials up to $r=2$.
answered Feb 10 at 22:52
BenBen
25.1k227119
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$begingroup$
How do you get that sum over $x geq 2$ to be equal to $lambda^2$?
$endgroup$
– jbowman
Feb 10 at 21:29
$begingroup$
I have added a step.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 21:37
1
$begingroup$
Going from line 3 to line 4, you've assumed $x^2/x! = 1/(x - 2)!$ for $x geq 2$, which is not true. Also, your $-lambda^2$ term disappears on line 4 and then reappears on line 5.
$endgroup$
– Alex
Feb 10 at 21:52
5
$begingroup$
Often times it's easier to start by finding $E[X(X-1)]$. Also, please add the self-study tag, and I'll assist further.
$endgroup$
– StatsStudent
Feb 10 at 21:55
1
$begingroup$
@StatsStudent Yes, I found that just now. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– anotherone
Feb 10 at 22:00