What does it mean to say that a topology is defined by a metric?












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I have read the following phrase. The weak topology on $X$ is defined by a translation invariant metric. What does this mean? Does this mean that the weak topology is the same as the topology that the metric induces?










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  • It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03










  • Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
    – 伽罗瓦
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03












  • Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
    – Hew Wolff
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:43
















1














I have read the following phrase. The weak topology on $X$ is defined by a translation invariant metric. What does this mean? Does this mean that the weak topology is the same as the topology that the metric induces?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03










  • Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
    – 伽罗瓦
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03












  • Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
    – Hew Wolff
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:43














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I have read the following phrase. The weak topology on $X$ is defined by a translation invariant metric. What does this mean? Does this mean that the weak topology is the same as the topology that the metric induces?










share|cite|improve this question















I have read the following phrase. The weak topology on $X$ is defined by a translation invariant metric. What does this mean? Does this mean that the weak topology is the same as the topology that the metric induces?







general-topology






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edited Nov 22 '18 at 4:04

























asked Nov 22 '18 at 4:02









伽罗瓦

1,083615




1,083615












  • It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03










  • Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
    – 伽罗瓦
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03












  • Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
    – Hew Wolff
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:43


















  • It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03










  • Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
    – 伽罗瓦
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:03












  • Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
    – Hew Wolff
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:43
















It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 4:03




It means that the weak topology isn't the same as the topology that a metric of this type induces.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 4:03












Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
– 伽罗瓦
Nov 22 '18 at 4:03






Oops. Ok thanks! Edited for clarity.
– 伽罗瓦
Nov 22 '18 at 4:03














Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
– Hew Wolff
Nov 22 '18 at 4:43




Your interpretation is plausible, but without more context, it's hard to say whether it's correct. Where does the metric come from?
– Hew Wolff
Nov 22 '18 at 4:43










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