$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$












0












$begingroup$


Given $fin C^{1}({bf R}^{3})$ , then find the solution of the following pde :



$$left{begin{array}{lll}
f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\
f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y)
end{array}right.$$



I tried to use the characteristic method to solve this question , but I failed . Any comment or advice I will be grateful .










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Given $fin C^{1}({bf R}^{3})$ , then find the solution of the following pde :



    $$left{begin{array}{lll}
    f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\
    f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y)
    end{array}right.$$



    I tried to use the characteristic method to solve this question , but I failed . Any comment or advice I will be grateful .










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Given $fin C^{1}({bf R}^{3})$ , then find the solution of the following pde :



      $$left{begin{array}{lll}
      f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\
      f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y)
      end{array}right.$$



      I tried to use the characteristic method to solve this question , but I failed . Any comment or advice I will be grateful .










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Given $fin C^{1}({bf R}^{3})$ , then find the solution of the following pde :



      $$left{begin{array}{lll}
      f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\
      f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y)
      end{array}right.$$



      I tried to use the characteristic method to solve this question , but I failed . Any comment or advice I will be grateful .







      ordinary-differential-equations analysis pde characteristics






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited May 9 '18 at 9:50









      LutzL

      57.2k42054




      57.2k42054










      asked Feb 3 '18 at 7:18









      user1992user1992

      7011510




      7011510






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          $$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$$
          The characteristic ODEs are : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x}=frac{dx}{0}=frac{df}{0}$



          A first family of characteristic curves comes from : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x} quadimpliesquad y-xt=c_1$



          A second family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{dx}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad x=c_2$



          A third family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{df}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad f=c_3$



          Thus, the general solution of the PDE, expressed on the form of implicite equation is :
          $$Phileft(x:,: (t-xt) :,: f right)=0$$
          where $Phi$ is any differentiable function of three variables.
          ( Doesn't matter the order of the variables since the function $Phi$ is arbitrary ).



          Or alternatively, on explicit form :
          $$f(x,y,t)=Fleft(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$
          where $F$ is any differentiable function of two variables.



          CONDITION :



          $f(x,y,0)=f_0(x,y)=Fleft(x:,:(y-0) right) quadimpliesquad Fleft(x:,:y right)=f_0(x,y)$



          Now, the function $F$ is determined. We put it into the above general solution where the second variable is $(y-xt)$. This leads to :
          $$f(x,y,t)=f_0left(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
            $endgroup$
            – JJacquelin
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:38



















          2












          $begingroup$

          The method of characteristics should tell you that the characteristic curves
          $$
          t(s),, x(s),,y(s),,z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))
          $$
          follow the ODE (up to re-parametrization)
          $$
          frac{dt}{ds}=1,, frac{dx}{dt}=0,, frac{dy}{dt}=x,, frac{dz}{ds}=0
          $$
          which has solutions
          $$t=s+t_0,, x=x_0,, y=y_0+x_0s,, z=z_0$$ so that for all $s$ (discounting shocks etc., i.e., in a neighborhood of $s=0$)
          begin{align}
          f(t,x,y)&=z(s)=f(t_0+s,x_0,y_0+x_0s)\
          &=z(0)=f(0,x_0,y_0)=f(0,x,y-xt)\
          &=f_0(x,y-xt).
          end{align}
          where obviously the initial values where chosen to conform to the given boundary condition, that is, $t_0=0$ so that $t=s$, $x_0=x$, $y_0=y-x_0s=y-xt$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:48










          • $begingroup$
            This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:36



















          2












          $begingroup$

          If the PDE was just $f_{t} + f_{y} = 0$, then you would make a travelling wave ansatz $f(x,y,t) = f(y-t)$. As the derivative in $y$ has a non-constant coefficient $x$, it stands to reason that when differentiating our solution with respect to $t$, we should get an $x$ out the front. Hence, we can guess that $$f(x,y,t) = f_{0}(x, y - xt)$$ solves the problem, which you can check by differentiation it does.



          Alternatively, make the guess $f(x,y,t) = g(alpha y + gamma t)$ which, after differentiation, yields



          begin{align}
          f_{t} &= gamma g' \
          f_{y} &= alpha g' \
          therefore f_{t} + x f_{y} &= 0 \
          implies gamma g' + x alpha g' &= 0 \
          implies gamma &= -x, quad alpha = 1 \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= g(y - xt)
          end{align}



          Applying the initial condition yields



          begin{align}
          f(x,y,0) &= g(y) \
          &= f_{0}(x,y) \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= f_{0}(x, y - xt)
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
            $endgroup$
            – Mattos
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:39











          Your Answer





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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          $$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$$
          The characteristic ODEs are : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x}=frac{dx}{0}=frac{df}{0}$



          A first family of characteristic curves comes from : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x} quadimpliesquad y-xt=c_1$



          A second family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{dx}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad x=c_2$



          A third family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{df}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad f=c_3$



          Thus, the general solution of the PDE, expressed on the form of implicite equation is :
          $$Phileft(x:,: (t-xt) :,: f right)=0$$
          where $Phi$ is any differentiable function of three variables.
          ( Doesn't matter the order of the variables since the function $Phi$ is arbitrary ).



          Or alternatively, on explicit form :
          $$f(x,y,t)=Fleft(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$
          where $F$ is any differentiable function of two variables.



          CONDITION :



          $f(x,y,0)=f_0(x,y)=Fleft(x:,:(y-0) right) quadimpliesquad Fleft(x:,:y right)=f_0(x,y)$



          Now, the function $F$ is determined. We put it into the above general solution where the second variable is $(y-xt)$. This leads to :
          $$f(x,y,t)=f_0left(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
            $endgroup$
            – JJacquelin
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:38
















          2












          $begingroup$

          $$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$$
          The characteristic ODEs are : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x}=frac{dx}{0}=frac{df}{0}$



          A first family of characteristic curves comes from : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x} quadimpliesquad y-xt=c_1$



          A second family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{dx}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad x=c_2$



          A third family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{df}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad f=c_3$



          Thus, the general solution of the PDE, expressed on the form of implicite equation is :
          $$Phileft(x:,: (t-xt) :,: f right)=0$$
          where $Phi$ is any differentiable function of three variables.
          ( Doesn't matter the order of the variables since the function $Phi$ is arbitrary ).



          Or alternatively, on explicit form :
          $$f(x,y,t)=Fleft(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$
          where $F$ is any differentiable function of two variables.



          CONDITION :



          $f(x,y,0)=f_0(x,y)=Fleft(x:,:(y-0) right) quadimpliesquad Fleft(x:,:y right)=f_0(x,y)$



          Now, the function $F$ is determined. We put it into the above general solution where the second variable is $(y-xt)$. This leads to :
          $$f(x,y,t)=f_0left(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
            $endgroup$
            – JJacquelin
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:38














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          $$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$$
          The characteristic ODEs are : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x}=frac{dx}{0}=frac{df}{0}$



          A first family of characteristic curves comes from : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x} quadimpliesquad y-xt=c_1$



          A second family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{dx}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad x=c_2$



          A third family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{df}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad f=c_3$



          Thus, the general solution of the PDE, expressed on the form of implicite equation is :
          $$Phileft(x:,: (t-xt) :,: f right)=0$$
          where $Phi$ is any differentiable function of three variables.
          ( Doesn't matter the order of the variables since the function $Phi$ is arbitrary ).



          Or alternatively, on explicit form :
          $$f(x,y,t)=Fleft(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$
          where $F$ is any differentiable function of two variables.



          CONDITION :



          $f(x,y,0)=f_0(x,y)=Fleft(x:,:(y-0) right) quadimpliesquad Fleft(x:,:y right)=f_0(x,y)$



          Now, the function $F$ is determined. We put it into the above general solution where the second variable is $(y-xt)$. This leads to :
          $$f(x,y,t)=f_0left(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $$left{begin{array}{lll} f_{t}+xf_{y}=0\ f|_{t=0}=f_{0}(x,y) end{array}right.$$
          The characteristic ODEs are : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x}=frac{dx}{0}=frac{df}{0}$



          A first family of characteristic curves comes from : $quad frac{dt}{1}=frac{dy}{x} quadimpliesquad y-xt=c_1$



          A second family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{dx}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad x=c_2$



          A third family of characteristic curves comes from $quadfrac{df}{0}=$finite$quadimpliesquad f=c_3$



          Thus, the general solution of the PDE, expressed on the form of implicite equation is :
          $$Phileft(x:,: (t-xt) :,: f right)=0$$
          where $Phi$ is any differentiable function of three variables.
          ( Doesn't matter the order of the variables since the function $Phi$ is arbitrary ).



          Or alternatively, on explicit form :
          $$f(x,y,t)=Fleft(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$
          where $F$ is any differentiable function of two variables.



          CONDITION :



          $f(x,y,0)=f_0(x,y)=Fleft(x:,:(y-0) right) quadimpliesquad Fleft(x:,:y right)=f_0(x,y)$



          Now, the function $F$ is determined. We put it into the above general solution where the second variable is $(y-xt)$. This leads to :
          $$f(x,y,t)=f_0left(x:,:(y-xt) right)$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Feb 3 '18 at 9:41









          JJacquelinJJacquelin

          43.2k21752




          43.2k21752












          • $begingroup$
            Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
            $endgroup$
            – JJacquelin
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:38


















          • $begingroup$
            Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 9:50










          • $begingroup$
            You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:46










          • $begingroup$
            On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
            $endgroup$
            – JJacquelin
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:38
















          $begingroup$
          Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 9:50




          $begingroup$
          Now , I understood . This explaining is clear and sound .
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 9:50












          $begingroup$
          You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – LutzL
          Feb 3 '18 at 10:46




          $begingroup$
          You can solve the first equation in this way only after determining that $x$ is constant, as with $x$ a function the integration $y=int x,dt$ is not trivial.
          $endgroup$
          – LutzL
          Feb 3 '18 at 10:46












          $begingroup$
          On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
          $endgroup$
          – JJacquelin
          Feb 3 '18 at 11:38




          $begingroup$
          On the characteristic we are looking for $x=c_2$. If one prefers, the above first characteristic can be introduced after the second. Doesn't matter the order.
          $endgroup$
          – JJacquelin
          Feb 3 '18 at 11:38











          2












          $begingroup$

          The method of characteristics should tell you that the characteristic curves
          $$
          t(s),, x(s),,y(s),,z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))
          $$
          follow the ODE (up to re-parametrization)
          $$
          frac{dt}{ds}=1,, frac{dx}{dt}=0,, frac{dy}{dt}=x,, frac{dz}{ds}=0
          $$
          which has solutions
          $$t=s+t_0,, x=x_0,, y=y_0+x_0s,, z=z_0$$ so that for all $s$ (discounting shocks etc., i.e., in a neighborhood of $s=0$)
          begin{align}
          f(t,x,y)&=z(s)=f(t_0+s,x_0,y_0+x_0s)\
          &=z(0)=f(0,x_0,y_0)=f(0,x,y-xt)\
          &=f_0(x,y-xt).
          end{align}
          where obviously the initial values where chosen to conform to the given boundary condition, that is, $t_0=0$ so that $t=s$, $x_0=x$, $y_0=y-x_0s=y-xt$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:48










          • $begingroup$
            This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:36
















          2












          $begingroup$

          The method of characteristics should tell you that the characteristic curves
          $$
          t(s),, x(s),,y(s),,z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))
          $$
          follow the ODE (up to re-parametrization)
          $$
          frac{dt}{ds}=1,, frac{dx}{dt}=0,, frac{dy}{dt}=x,, frac{dz}{ds}=0
          $$
          which has solutions
          $$t=s+t_0,, x=x_0,, y=y_0+x_0s,, z=z_0$$ so that for all $s$ (discounting shocks etc., i.e., in a neighborhood of $s=0$)
          begin{align}
          f(t,x,y)&=z(s)=f(t_0+s,x_0,y_0+x_0s)\
          &=z(0)=f(0,x_0,y_0)=f(0,x,y-xt)\
          &=f_0(x,y-xt).
          end{align}
          where obviously the initial values where chosen to conform to the given boundary condition, that is, $t_0=0$ so that $t=s$, $x_0=x$, $y_0=y-x_0s=y-xt$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:48










          • $begingroup$
            This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:36














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          The method of characteristics should tell you that the characteristic curves
          $$
          t(s),, x(s),,y(s),,z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))
          $$
          follow the ODE (up to re-parametrization)
          $$
          frac{dt}{ds}=1,, frac{dx}{dt}=0,, frac{dy}{dt}=x,, frac{dz}{ds}=0
          $$
          which has solutions
          $$t=s+t_0,, x=x_0,, y=y_0+x_0s,, z=z_0$$ so that for all $s$ (discounting shocks etc., i.e., in a neighborhood of $s=0$)
          begin{align}
          f(t,x,y)&=z(s)=f(t_0+s,x_0,y_0+x_0s)\
          &=z(0)=f(0,x_0,y_0)=f(0,x,y-xt)\
          &=f_0(x,y-xt).
          end{align}
          where obviously the initial values where chosen to conform to the given boundary condition, that is, $t_0=0$ so that $t=s$, $x_0=x$, $y_0=y-x_0s=y-xt$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          The method of characteristics should tell you that the characteristic curves
          $$
          t(s),, x(s),,y(s),,z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))
          $$
          follow the ODE (up to re-parametrization)
          $$
          frac{dt}{ds}=1,, frac{dx}{dt}=0,, frac{dy}{dt}=x,, frac{dz}{ds}=0
          $$
          which has solutions
          $$t=s+t_0,, x=x_0,, y=y_0+x_0s,, z=z_0$$ so that for all $s$ (discounting shocks etc., i.e., in a neighborhood of $s=0$)
          begin{align}
          f(t,x,y)&=z(s)=f(t_0+s,x_0,y_0+x_0s)\
          &=z(0)=f(0,x_0,y_0)=f(0,x,y-xt)\
          &=f_0(x,y-xt).
          end{align}
          where obviously the initial values where chosen to conform to the given boundary condition, that is, $t_0=0$ so that $t=s$, $x_0=x$, $y_0=y-x_0s=y-xt$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Feb 3 '18 at 10:43

























          answered Feb 3 '18 at 8:42









          LutzLLutzL

          57.2k42054




          57.2k42054












          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:48










          • $begingroup$
            This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:36


















          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:48










          • $begingroup$
            This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
            $endgroup$
            – LutzL
            Feb 3 '18 at 10:36
















          $begingroup$
          Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 8:48




          $begingroup$
          Can I ask $t(x)~,x(s),~y(s),~z(s)=f(t(s),x(s),y(s))~$ ,what does it mean ?
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 8:48












          $begingroup$
          This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
          $endgroup$
          – LutzL
          Feb 3 '18 at 10:36




          $begingroup$
          This is the parametrization of a characteristic curve of the problem. One needs to distinguish at least the function $z(s)$ from the function $f(t,x,y)$, to be perfectly correct one would also have to use different symbols for the free variables $t,x,y$ and the functions $t(s),x(s),y(s)$, but this kind of "abuse of notation" is usual in this situation.
          $endgroup$
          – LutzL
          Feb 3 '18 at 10:36











          2












          $begingroup$

          If the PDE was just $f_{t} + f_{y} = 0$, then you would make a travelling wave ansatz $f(x,y,t) = f(y-t)$. As the derivative in $y$ has a non-constant coefficient $x$, it stands to reason that when differentiating our solution with respect to $t$, we should get an $x$ out the front. Hence, we can guess that $$f(x,y,t) = f_{0}(x, y - xt)$$ solves the problem, which you can check by differentiation it does.



          Alternatively, make the guess $f(x,y,t) = g(alpha y + gamma t)$ which, after differentiation, yields



          begin{align}
          f_{t} &= gamma g' \
          f_{y} &= alpha g' \
          therefore f_{t} + x f_{y} &= 0 \
          implies gamma g' + x alpha g' &= 0 \
          implies gamma &= -x, quad alpha = 1 \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= g(y - xt)
          end{align}



          Applying the initial condition yields



          begin{align}
          f(x,y,0) &= g(y) \
          &= f_{0}(x,y) \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= f_{0}(x, y - xt)
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
            $endgroup$
            – Mattos
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:39
















          2












          $begingroup$

          If the PDE was just $f_{t} + f_{y} = 0$, then you would make a travelling wave ansatz $f(x,y,t) = f(y-t)$. As the derivative in $y$ has a non-constant coefficient $x$, it stands to reason that when differentiating our solution with respect to $t$, we should get an $x$ out the front. Hence, we can guess that $$f(x,y,t) = f_{0}(x, y - xt)$$ solves the problem, which you can check by differentiation it does.



          Alternatively, make the guess $f(x,y,t) = g(alpha y + gamma t)$ which, after differentiation, yields



          begin{align}
          f_{t} &= gamma g' \
          f_{y} &= alpha g' \
          therefore f_{t} + x f_{y} &= 0 \
          implies gamma g' + x alpha g' &= 0 \
          implies gamma &= -x, quad alpha = 1 \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= g(y - xt)
          end{align}



          Applying the initial condition yields



          begin{align}
          f(x,y,0) &= g(y) \
          &= f_{0}(x,y) \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= f_{0}(x, y - xt)
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
            $endgroup$
            – Mattos
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:39














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          If the PDE was just $f_{t} + f_{y} = 0$, then you would make a travelling wave ansatz $f(x,y,t) = f(y-t)$. As the derivative in $y$ has a non-constant coefficient $x$, it stands to reason that when differentiating our solution with respect to $t$, we should get an $x$ out the front. Hence, we can guess that $$f(x,y,t) = f_{0}(x, y - xt)$$ solves the problem, which you can check by differentiation it does.



          Alternatively, make the guess $f(x,y,t) = g(alpha y + gamma t)$ which, after differentiation, yields



          begin{align}
          f_{t} &= gamma g' \
          f_{y} &= alpha g' \
          therefore f_{t} + x f_{y} &= 0 \
          implies gamma g' + x alpha g' &= 0 \
          implies gamma &= -x, quad alpha = 1 \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= g(y - xt)
          end{align}



          Applying the initial condition yields



          begin{align}
          f(x,y,0) &= g(y) \
          &= f_{0}(x,y) \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= f_{0}(x, y - xt)
          end{align}






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          If the PDE was just $f_{t} + f_{y} = 0$, then you would make a travelling wave ansatz $f(x,y,t) = f(y-t)$. As the derivative in $y$ has a non-constant coefficient $x$, it stands to reason that when differentiating our solution with respect to $t$, we should get an $x$ out the front. Hence, we can guess that $$f(x,y,t) = f_{0}(x, y - xt)$$ solves the problem, which you can check by differentiation it does.



          Alternatively, make the guess $f(x,y,t) = g(alpha y + gamma t)$ which, after differentiation, yields



          begin{align}
          f_{t} &= gamma g' \
          f_{y} &= alpha g' \
          therefore f_{t} + x f_{y} &= 0 \
          implies gamma g' + x alpha g' &= 0 \
          implies gamma &= -x, quad alpha = 1 \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= g(y - xt)
          end{align}



          Applying the initial condition yields



          begin{align}
          f(x,y,0) &= g(y) \
          &= f_{0}(x,y) \
          implies f(x,y,t) &= f_{0}(x, y - xt)
          end{align}







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 26 '18 at 3:17

























          answered Feb 3 '18 at 7:54









          MattosMattos

          2,73721321




          2,73721321












          • $begingroup$
            yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
            $endgroup$
            – Mattos
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:39


















          • $begingroup$
            yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
            $endgroup$
            – user1992
            Feb 3 '18 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
            $endgroup$
            – Mattos
            Feb 3 '18 at 11:39
















          $begingroup$
          yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 8:23




          $begingroup$
          yes , the function $f_0(y-xt)$ actually works .but I have no ideal that why you guess another function $g(alpha y+gamma t)$ to deduce the solution $f(x,y,t) = g(y-xt)$
          $endgroup$
          – user1992
          Feb 3 '18 at 8:23












          $begingroup$
          When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
          $endgroup$
          – Mattos
          Feb 3 '18 at 11:39




          $begingroup$
          When I said alternatively, I meant that instead of using my first line of reasoning ('it stands to reason ...'), you can make an arbitrary wave ansatz and derive the values of $alpha, gamma$ that satisfy the PDE.
          $endgroup$
          – Mattos
          Feb 3 '18 at 11:39


















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