Show that $int_{0}^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx = int_{0}^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx$












2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to follow the argument in the image below, which aims to show that: $int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx$.



I believe this on an intuitive level, and I understand that it uses the periodicity of the sine and cosine functions to make the point. But, I'm stuck because the argument seems to only show that $int_{x=0}^{x=2pi} cos^2(x)dx = int_{u=0}^{u=2pi} sin^2(u) du$, and the variable $u$ is not the same as $x$.



Would you be able to clarify this argument?



enter image description here










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
    $endgroup$
    – Ryan
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user254433
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:19






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
    $endgroup$
    – Jimmy Sabater
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:23






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:29


















2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to follow the argument in the image below, which aims to show that: $int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx$.



I believe this on an intuitive level, and I understand that it uses the periodicity of the sine and cosine functions to make the point. But, I'm stuck because the argument seems to only show that $int_{x=0}^{x=2pi} cos^2(x)dx = int_{u=0}^{u=2pi} sin^2(u) du$, and the variable $u$ is not the same as $x$.



Would you be able to clarify this argument?



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
    $endgroup$
    – Ryan
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user254433
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:19






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
    $endgroup$
    – Jimmy Sabater
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:23






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:29
















2












2








2





$begingroup$


I'm trying to follow the argument in the image below, which aims to show that: $int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx$.



I believe this on an intuitive level, and I understand that it uses the periodicity of the sine and cosine functions to make the point. But, I'm stuck because the argument seems to only show that $int_{x=0}^{x=2pi} cos^2(x)dx = int_{u=0}^{u=2pi} sin^2(u) du$, and the variable $u$ is not the same as $x$.



Would you be able to clarify this argument?



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm trying to follow the argument in the image below, which aims to show that: $int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx$.



I believe this on an intuitive level, and I understand that it uses the periodicity of the sine and cosine functions to make the point. But, I'm stuck because the argument seems to only show that $int_{x=0}^{x=2pi} cos^2(x)dx = int_{u=0}^{u=2pi} sin^2(u) du$, and the variable $u$ is not the same as $x$.



Would you be able to clarify this argument?



enter image description here







calculus integration trigonometry






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share|cite|improve this question




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asked Nov 30 '18 at 4:15









lthompsonlthompson

1099




1099








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
    $endgroup$
    – Ryan
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user254433
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:19






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
    $endgroup$
    – Jimmy Sabater
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:23






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:29
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
    $endgroup$
    – Ryan
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    $u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – user254433
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:19






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    $$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
    $endgroup$
    – Jimmy Sabater
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:23






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:29










2




2




$begingroup$
Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Nov 30 '18 at 4:18




$begingroup$
Do you believe $int sin^2(x)dx = int sin^2(u)du$? What role does the variable play in the integral?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Nov 30 '18 at 4:18




3




3




$begingroup$
For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Nov 30 '18 at 4:18




$begingroup$
For a definite integral, the name of the variable shouldn't matter.
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Nov 30 '18 at 4:18




2




2




$begingroup$
$u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
$endgroup$
– user254433
Nov 30 '18 at 4:19




$begingroup$
$u$ is a dummy variable: it's like saying $sum_{k=1}^nf(x_k)$ is equal to $sum_{ell=1}^nf(x_ell)$, where here $k,ell$ are dummy indices. by the way, another way: $cos^2(x)=(1+sin(2x)]/2$, and $sin^2(x)=[1-sin 2x]/2$, and the doubly-periodic terms integrate to zero.
$endgroup$
– user254433
Nov 30 '18 at 4:19




3




3




$begingroup$
$$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
$endgroup$
– Jimmy Sabater
Nov 30 '18 at 4:23




$begingroup$
$$ int f( Calculus ) d Calculus = int f(x) dx = int f(u) du $$
$endgroup$
– Jimmy Sabater
Nov 30 '18 at 4:23




2




2




$begingroup$
@lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 4:29






$begingroup$
@lthompson What is the difference between $int_a^b f(x),dx$ and $int_a^b f(t),dt$? There is no difference. The integration variable is a "dummy" and is not implicated in the answer.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 4:29












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

What is $int_0^1x,dx$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}x^2right|_{x=0}^{x=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



What is $int_0^1u,du$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}u^2right|_{u=0}^{u=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



Does this help you see that $int_0^1x,dx=int_0^1u,du$? And that this generalizes to $int_a^bf(x),dx=int_a^bf(u),du$? In particular, $int_0^{2pi}sin^2(x),dx=int_0^{2pi}sin^2(u),du$



In a definite integral, the variable used is irrelevant. If you actually evaluate the definite integral, you will be replacing that variable with numbers at some point, and no trace of the variable will remain.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
    $endgroup$
    – lthompson
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:34








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
    $endgroup$
    – alex.jordan
    Nov 30 '18 at 4:41



















2












$begingroup$

As a more general fact (after you can convince yourself that dummy variables like $u$ or $x$ disappear after you do the integration), you can show that for any integers $n<m$,



$$
intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} sin^2x; dx = intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} cos^2x; dx = frac{1}{2}cdot(text{the length of the interval})
$$



You can convince yourself of the first equality by looking at the graphs and seeing that any of the "quarter-areas" under $|sin x|$ and $|cos x|$ are equal; and the second equality follows by adding the two integrals together and using $sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    There are two ways to check the validity of the claim without changing the variable $x$:



    1) Consider their difference:
    $$int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx - int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx=-frac12sin 2x|_0^{2pi}=0.$$



    2) Use the half angle formula:
    $$begin{align}int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx &= int_0^{2pi} frac{1+cos 2x}{2} dx=\
    &=int_0^{2pi} left(frac{1-cos 2x}{2}+cos 2xright) dx=\
    &=int_0^{2pi} frac{1-cos 2x}{2}dx+underbrace{int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx}_{=0}=\
    &=int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx. end{align}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      5












      $begingroup$

      What is $int_0^1x,dx$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}x^2right|_{x=0}^{x=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      What is $int_0^1u,du$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}u^2right|_{u=0}^{u=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      Does this help you see that $int_0^1x,dx=int_0^1u,du$? And that this generalizes to $int_a^bf(x),dx=int_a^bf(u),du$? In particular, $int_0^{2pi}sin^2(x),dx=int_0^{2pi}sin^2(u),du$



      In a definite integral, the variable used is irrelevant. If you actually evaluate the definite integral, you will be replacing that variable with numbers at some point, and no trace of the variable will remain.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
        $endgroup$
        – lthompson
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:34








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
        $endgroup$
        – alex.jordan
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:41
















      5












      $begingroup$

      What is $int_0^1x,dx$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}x^2right|_{x=0}^{x=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      What is $int_0^1u,du$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}u^2right|_{u=0}^{u=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      Does this help you see that $int_0^1x,dx=int_0^1u,du$? And that this generalizes to $int_a^bf(x),dx=int_a^bf(u),du$? In particular, $int_0^{2pi}sin^2(x),dx=int_0^{2pi}sin^2(u),du$



      In a definite integral, the variable used is irrelevant. If you actually evaluate the definite integral, you will be replacing that variable with numbers at some point, and no trace of the variable will remain.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
        $endgroup$
        – lthompson
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:34








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
        $endgroup$
        – alex.jordan
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:41














      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$

      What is $int_0^1x,dx$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}x^2right|_{x=0}^{x=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      What is $int_0^1u,du$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}u^2right|_{u=0}^{u=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      Does this help you see that $int_0^1x,dx=int_0^1u,du$? And that this generalizes to $int_a^bf(x),dx=int_a^bf(u),du$? In particular, $int_0^{2pi}sin^2(x),dx=int_0^{2pi}sin^2(u),du$



      In a definite integral, the variable used is irrelevant. If you actually evaluate the definite integral, you will be replacing that variable with numbers at some point, and no trace of the variable will remain.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      What is $int_0^1x,dx$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}x^2right|_{x=0}^{x=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      What is $int_0^1u,du$? It is $left.frac{1}{2}u^2right|_{u=0}^{u=1}$, which is $frac{1}{2}(1^2)-frac{1}{2}(0^2)$, which is $frac{1}{2}$.



      Does this help you see that $int_0^1x,dx=int_0^1u,du$? And that this generalizes to $int_a^bf(x),dx=int_a^bf(u),du$? In particular, $int_0^{2pi}sin^2(x),dx=int_0^{2pi}sin^2(u),du$



      In a definite integral, the variable used is irrelevant. If you actually evaluate the definite integral, you will be replacing that variable with numbers at some point, and no trace of the variable will remain.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Nov 30 '18 at 4:41

























      answered Nov 30 '18 at 4:30









      alex.jordanalex.jordan

      39.1k560121




      39.1k560121












      • $begingroup$
        That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
        $endgroup$
        – lthompson
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:34








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
        $endgroup$
        – alex.jordan
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:41


















      • $begingroup$
        That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
        $endgroup$
        – lthompson
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:34








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
        $endgroup$
        – alex.jordan
        Nov 30 '18 at 4:41
















      $begingroup$
      That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
      $endgroup$
      – lthompson
      Nov 30 '18 at 4:34






      $begingroup$
      That makes sense, thank you. But isn't there some notion of $x$ being fixed for the integral involving cosine, so that $x$ and $u$ are not just arbitrary variables with respect to each other in this particular case?
      $endgroup$
      – lthompson
      Nov 30 '18 at 4:34






      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
      $endgroup$
      – alex.jordan
      Nov 30 '18 at 4:41




      $begingroup$
      $x$ and $u$ are arbitrary variables. And they aren't fixed. Each one is ranging from $0$ up to $2pi$ as the integral sum is assembled.
      $endgroup$
      – alex.jordan
      Nov 30 '18 at 4:41











      2












      $begingroup$

      As a more general fact (after you can convince yourself that dummy variables like $u$ or $x$ disappear after you do the integration), you can show that for any integers $n<m$,



      $$
      intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} sin^2x; dx = intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} cos^2x; dx = frac{1}{2}cdot(text{the length of the interval})
      $$



      You can convince yourself of the first equality by looking at the graphs and seeing that any of the "quarter-areas" under $|sin x|$ and $|cos x|$ are equal; and the second equality follows by adding the two integrals together and using $sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        As a more general fact (after you can convince yourself that dummy variables like $u$ or $x$ disappear after you do the integration), you can show that for any integers $n<m$,



        $$
        intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} sin^2x; dx = intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} cos^2x; dx = frac{1}{2}cdot(text{the length of the interval})
        $$



        You can convince yourself of the first equality by looking at the graphs and seeing that any of the "quarter-areas" under $|sin x|$ and $|cos x|$ are equal; and the second equality follows by adding the two integrals together and using $sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          As a more general fact (after you can convince yourself that dummy variables like $u$ or $x$ disappear after you do the integration), you can show that for any integers $n<m$,



          $$
          intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} sin^2x; dx = intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} cos^2x; dx = frac{1}{2}cdot(text{the length of the interval})
          $$



          You can convince yourself of the first equality by looking at the graphs and seeing that any of the "quarter-areas" under $|sin x|$ and $|cos x|$ are equal; and the second equality follows by adding the two integrals together and using $sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          As a more general fact (after you can convince yourself that dummy variables like $u$ or $x$ disappear after you do the integration), you can show that for any integers $n<m$,



          $$
          intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} sin^2x; dx = intlimits_{nfrac{pi}{2}}^{mfrac{pi}{2}} cos^2x; dx = frac{1}{2}cdot(text{the length of the interval})
          $$



          You can convince yourself of the first equality by looking at the graphs and seeing that any of the "quarter-areas" under $|sin x|$ and $|cos x|$ are equal; and the second equality follows by adding the two integrals together and using $sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 30 '18 at 4:37









          user25959user25959

          1,573816




          1,573816























              2












              $begingroup$

              There are two ways to check the validity of the claim without changing the variable $x$:



              1) Consider their difference:
              $$int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx - int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx=-frac12sin 2x|_0^{2pi}=0.$$



              2) Use the half angle formula:
              $$begin{align}int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx &= int_0^{2pi} frac{1+cos 2x}{2} dx=\
              &=int_0^{2pi} left(frac{1-cos 2x}{2}+cos 2xright) dx=\
              &=int_0^{2pi} frac{1-cos 2x}{2}dx+underbrace{int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx}_{=0}=\
              &=int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx. end{align}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                There are two ways to check the validity of the claim without changing the variable $x$:



                1) Consider their difference:
                $$int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx - int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx=-frac12sin 2x|_0^{2pi}=0.$$



                2) Use the half angle formula:
                $$begin{align}int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx &= int_0^{2pi} frac{1+cos 2x}{2} dx=\
                &=int_0^{2pi} left(frac{1-cos 2x}{2}+cos 2xright) dx=\
                &=int_0^{2pi} frac{1-cos 2x}{2}dx+underbrace{int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx}_{=0}=\
                &=int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx. end{align}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  There are two ways to check the validity of the claim without changing the variable $x$:



                  1) Consider their difference:
                  $$int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx - int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx=-frac12sin 2x|_0^{2pi}=0.$$



                  2) Use the half angle formula:
                  $$begin{align}int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx &= int_0^{2pi} frac{1+cos 2x}{2} dx=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} left(frac{1-cos 2x}{2}+cos 2xright) dx=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} frac{1-cos 2x}{2}dx+underbrace{int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx}_{=0}=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx. end{align}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  There are two ways to check the validity of the claim without changing the variable $x$:



                  1) Consider their difference:
                  $$int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx - int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx = int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx=-frac12sin 2x|_0^{2pi}=0.$$



                  2) Use the half angle formula:
                  $$begin{align}int_0^{2pi} cos^2(x) dx &= int_0^{2pi} frac{1+cos 2x}{2} dx=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} left(frac{1-cos 2x}{2}+cos 2xright) dx=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} frac{1-cos 2x}{2}dx+underbrace{int_0^{2pi} cos 2xdx}_{=0}=\
                  &=int_0^{2pi} sin^2(x) dx. end{align}$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 30 '18 at 11:26









                  farruhotafarruhota

                  20.2k2738




                  20.2k2738






























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