Proving a group with five elements is abelian (commutative)












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I'm very early in my study of algebra, and would help to show that every group $G$ with five elements is abelian (commutative). Preferably in a more elemental way possible, I began studying algebra a little time, and I need this example to understand better.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – Najib Idrissi
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    @PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
    $endgroup$
    – user1729
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @user1729 : Exactly! :)
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:12
















2












$begingroup$


I'm very early in my study of algebra, and would help to show that every group $G$ with five elements is abelian (commutative). Preferably in a more elemental way possible, I began studying algebra a little time, and I need this example to understand better.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – Najib Idrissi
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    @PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
    $endgroup$
    – user1729
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @user1729 : Exactly! :)
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:12














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I'm very early in my study of algebra, and would help to show that every group $G$ with five elements is abelian (commutative). Preferably in a more elemental way possible, I began studying algebra a little time, and I need this example to understand better.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm very early in my study of algebra, and would help to show that every group $G$ with five elements is abelian (commutative). Preferably in a more elemental way possible, I began studying algebra a little time, and I need this example to understand better.







abstract-algebra group-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited May 17 '14 at 23:52









Karl Kronenfeld

4,40511425




4,40511425










asked Feb 18 '14 at 13:28









marcelolpjuniormarcelolpjunior

1,98031742




1,98031742








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – Najib Idrissi
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    @PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
    $endgroup$
    – user1729
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @user1729 : Exactly! :)
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:12














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
    $endgroup$
    – Najib Idrissi
    Feb 18 '14 at 13:47






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 16:10










  • $begingroup$
    @PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
    $endgroup$
    – user1729
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:10










  • $begingroup$
    @user1729 : Exactly! :)
    $endgroup$
    – user87543
    Feb 18 '14 at 17:12








1




1




$begingroup$
Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 18 '14 at 13:32




$begingroup$
Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
$endgroup$
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 18 '14 at 13:32












$begingroup$
If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
$endgroup$
– Najib Idrissi
Feb 18 '14 at 13:47




$begingroup$
If you understand the answers to this question, then it's easy, because a cyclic group is always abelian.
$endgroup$
– Najib Idrissi
Feb 18 '14 at 13:47




1




1




$begingroup$
I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
$endgroup$
– user87543
Feb 18 '14 at 16:10




$begingroup$
I am sure this question is asked before proving lagrange theorem... lagrange theorem is an overkill here I believe...
$endgroup$
– user87543
Feb 18 '14 at 16:10












$begingroup$
@PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
$endgroup$
– user1729
Feb 18 '14 at 17:10




$begingroup$
@PraphullaKoushik Sounds like a job for Cayley-table-Sudoku!
$endgroup$
– user1729
Feb 18 '14 at 17:10












$begingroup$
@user1729 : Exactly! :)
$endgroup$
– user87543
Feb 18 '14 at 17:12




$begingroup$
@user1729 : Exactly! :)
$endgroup$
– user87543
Feb 18 '14 at 17:12










4 Answers
4






active

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3












$begingroup$

As nik pointed out: using Lagrange's theorem we can see its only subgroup is $e$ and itself. (since 5 is prime).



So therefore the group is cyclic. (since having elements of a lower order would create a subgroup). then the elements are $e,a^1,a^2,a^3,a^4$. since $a^kcdot a^l=a^{k+l}=a^{l+k}=a^lcdot a^k$ the group is abelian






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    Nicky Heckster has given a useful hint here. I am expanding on it.



    Let $e$ be identity element. Suppose that there exist two elements such that $abneq ba$. Then 5 unique elements of the group will be ${e,a,b,ab,ba}$. Note that $a^2 neq ab$ and $a^2 neq ba$. Also, $a^2 neq b$ and $b^2 neq a$ as either of these will make $ab=ba$. We can conclude $a^2=b^2=e$.



    Now consider the product of $a$ with all other elements



    $a.{e,a,b,ab,ba}={a,a^2,ab,a^2b,aba}={a,e,ab,b,aba}$. Note that product of $a$ with each of the elements should be unique, as $ ax=ay implies a^{-1}ax=a^{-1}ax implies x=y$. All elements except $ba$ are already in set of products. This means that $aba=ba implies a=e$ But this is a contradiction. Therefore a group of 5 elements has to be commutative.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      First, Lagrange's theorem implies there is no subgroup of order 2, so one may suppose ${1, a, bar{a}, b, bar{b}}$ be this group.



      Consider $ab$, there are two cases $ab=bar{a}$ or $ab=bar{b}$. We obtain $a^2b=1$ or $ab^2=1$, hence abelian in both cases.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
        $endgroup$
        – Tobias Kildetoft
        Feb 18 '14 at 13:42










      • $begingroup$
        Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
        $endgroup$
        – 5xum
        Feb 18 '14 at 13:43










      • $begingroup$
        @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Ma Ming
        Feb 18 '14 at 13:54










      • $begingroup$
        Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
        $endgroup$
        – 5xum
        Feb 18 '14 at 13:56



















      0












      $begingroup$

      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly a non identity element $ain G$



      Before going any further It is necessary to see that :




      A Group in which every element is of order $2$ is abelian




      so, we can for sure choose non identity element $a$ to be such that $a^2neq e$



      So, we have $3$ distinct elements ${e,a,a^{-1}}$ from $G$



      For sure $ain G$ can not have order more than $5$.




      • Suppose $a$ is of order $5$ then we see that $G$ is abelian.

      • $a$ can not have order $4$ because a subgroup of $G$ can not be of order $|G|-1$


      So, only possibility we should take care of is $|a|=3$



      In that case we have ${e,a,a^2}subset G$



      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly one elemnet $bin G$ such that $bnotin {e,a,a^2}$ and $b$ can not be inverse of any element in ${e,a,a^2}$



      Only possible order of $b$ is $2$...




      what would go wrong if $b$ is of order $3$ (consider possibilities of $ab$)




      So, we have ${e,a,a^2,b}subset G$



      Now... What could $ab$ be?




      • $ab=eRightarrow ??$

      • $ab=aRightarrow ??$

      • $ab=a^2Rightarrow ??$

      • $ab=bRightarrow ??$


      So, $ab$ is certainly another element which should complete the group as $|G|=5$ and $|{e,a,a^2,b,ab}|=5$



      Now, $ba$ should also be in $G$



      Now... What could $ba$ be?




      • $ba=eRightarrow ??$

      • $ba=aRightarrow ??$

      • $ba=a^2Rightarrow ??$

      • $ba=bRightarrow ??$


      so, only possible choice is $ab=ba$




      $textbf{ Hold On! this does not say that $G$ is abelian}$




      certainly $a^2b$ should also be in $G$ Right?



      what are the possibilities for $a^2b$ ?




      • $a^2b=eRightarrow ??$

      • $a^2b=aRightarrow ??$

      • $a^2b=a^2Rightarrow ??$

      • $a^2b=bRightarrow ??$

      • $a^2b=abRightarrow ??$


      This adds one more element to $G$ which contradicts given condition of cardinality of $G$ being $5$



      So... What does this say??






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      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
        $endgroup$
        – Pedro Tamaroff
        Feb 18 '14 at 16:54










      • $begingroup$
        @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
        $endgroup$
        – user87543
        Feb 18 '14 at 16:56













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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3












      $begingroup$

      As nik pointed out: using Lagrange's theorem we can see its only subgroup is $e$ and itself. (since 5 is prime).



      So therefore the group is cyclic. (since having elements of a lower order would create a subgroup). then the elements are $e,a^1,a^2,a^3,a^4$. since $a^kcdot a^l=a^{k+l}=a^{l+k}=a^lcdot a^k$ the group is abelian






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        3












        $begingroup$

        As nik pointed out: using Lagrange's theorem we can see its only subgroup is $e$ and itself. (since 5 is prime).



        So therefore the group is cyclic. (since having elements of a lower order would create a subgroup). then the elements are $e,a^1,a^2,a^3,a^4$. since $a^kcdot a^l=a^{k+l}=a^{l+k}=a^lcdot a^k$ the group is abelian






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          As nik pointed out: using Lagrange's theorem we can see its only subgroup is $e$ and itself. (since 5 is prime).



          So therefore the group is cyclic. (since having elements of a lower order would create a subgroup). then the elements are $e,a^1,a^2,a^3,a^4$. since $a^kcdot a^l=a^{k+l}=a^{l+k}=a^lcdot a^k$ the group is abelian






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          As nik pointed out: using Lagrange's theorem we can see its only subgroup is $e$ and itself. (since 5 is prime).



          So therefore the group is cyclic. (since having elements of a lower order would create a subgroup). then the elements are $e,a^1,a^2,a^3,a^4$. since $a^kcdot a^l=a^{k+l}=a^{l+k}=a^lcdot a^k$ the group is abelian







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited May 17 '14 at 23:53









          Karl Kronenfeld

          4,40511425




          4,40511425










          answered Feb 18 '14 at 13:57









          Jorge FernándezJorge Fernández

          75.4k1191192




          75.4k1191192























              3












              $begingroup$

              Nicky Heckster has given a useful hint here. I am expanding on it.



              Let $e$ be identity element. Suppose that there exist two elements such that $abneq ba$. Then 5 unique elements of the group will be ${e,a,b,ab,ba}$. Note that $a^2 neq ab$ and $a^2 neq ba$. Also, $a^2 neq b$ and $b^2 neq a$ as either of these will make $ab=ba$. We can conclude $a^2=b^2=e$.



              Now consider the product of $a$ with all other elements



              $a.{e,a,b,ab,ba}={a,a^2,ab,a^2b,aba}={a,e,ab,b,aba}$. Note that product of $a$ with each of the elements should be unique, as $ ax=ay implies a^{-1}ax=a^{-1}ax implies x=y$. All elements except $ba$ are already in set of products. This means that $aba=ba implies a=e$ But this is a contradiction. Therefore a group of 5 elements has to be commutative.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                Nicky Heckster has given a useful hint here. I am expanding on it.



                Let $e$ be identity element. Suppose that there exist two elements such that $abneq ba$. Then 5 unique elements of the group will be ${e,a,b,ab,ba}$. Note that $a^2 neq ab$ and $a^2 neq ba$. Also, $a^2 neq b$ and $b^2 neq a$ as either of these will make $ab=ba$. We can conclude $a^2=b^2=e$.



                Now consider the product of $a$ with all other elements



                $a.{e,a,b,ab,ba}={a,a^2,ab,a^2b,aba}={a,e,ab,b,aba}$. Note that product of $a$ with each of the elements should be unique, as $ ax=ay implies a^{-1}ax=a^{-1}ax implies x=y$. All elements except $ba$ are already in set of products. This means that $aba=ba implies a=e$ But this is a contradiction. Therefore a group of 5 elements has to be commutative.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  Nicky Heckster has given a useful hint here. I am expanding on it.



                  Let $e$ be identity element. Suppose that there exist two elements such that $abneq ba$. Then 5 unique elements of the group will be ${e,a,b,ab,ba}$. Note that $a^2 neq ab$ and $a^2 neq ba$. Also, $a^2 neq b$ and $b^2 neq a$ as either of these will make $ab=ba$. We can conclude $a^2=b^2=e$.



                  Now consider the product of $a$ with all other elements



                  $a.{e,a,b,ab,ba}={a,a^2,ab,a^2b,aba}={a,e,ab,b,aba}$. Note that product of $a$ with each of the elements should be unique, as $ ax=ay implies a^{-1}ax=a^{-1}ax implies x=y$. All elements except $ba$ are already in set of products. This means that $aba=ba implies a=e$ But this is a contradiction. Therefore a group of 5 elements has to be commutative.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Nicky Heckster has given a useful hint here. I am expanding on it.



                  Let $e$ be identity element. Suppose that there exist two elements such that $abneq ba$. Then 5 unique elements of the group will be ${e,a,b,ab,ba}$. Note that $a^2 neq ab$ and $a^2 neq ba$. Also, $a^2 neq b$ and $b^2 neq a$ as either of these will make $ab=ba$. We can conclude $a^2=b^2=e$.



                  Now consider the product of $a$ with all other elements



                  $a.{e,a,b,ab,ba}={a,a^2,ab,a^2b,aba}={a,e,ab,b,aba}$. Note that product of $a$ with each of the elements should be unique, as $ ax=ay implies a^{-1}ax=a^{-1}ax implies x=y$. All elements except $ba$ are already in set of products. This means that $aba=ba implies a=e$ But this is a contradiction. Therefore a group of 5 elements has to be commutative.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 30 '18 at 4:30









                  Hirak

                  2,57411337




                  2,57411337










                  answered Dec 12 '15 at 10:04









                  CuriousCurious

                  889516




                  889516























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      First, Lagrange's theorem implies there is no subgroup of order 2, so one may suppose ${1, a, bar{a}, b, bar{b}}$ be this group.



                      Consider $ab$, there are two cases $ab=bar{a}$ or $ab=bar{b}$. We obtain $a^2b=1$ or $ab^2=1$, hence abelian in both cases.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Tobias Kildetoft
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:42










                      • $begingroup$
                        Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:43










                      • $begingroup$
                        @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ma Ming
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:56
















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      First, Lagrange's theorem implies there is no subgroup of order 2, so one may suppose ${1, a, bar{a}, b, bar{b}}$ be this group.



                      Consider $ab$, there are two cases $ab=bar{a}$ or $ab=bar{b}$. We obtain $a^2b=1$ or $ab^2=1$, hence abelian in both cases.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Tobias Kildetoft
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:42










                      • $begingroup$
                        Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:43










                      • $begingroup$
                        @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ma Ming
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:56














                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      First, Lagrange's theorem implies there is no subgroup of order 2, so one may suppose ${1, a, bar{a}, b, bar{b}}$ be this group.



                      Consider $ab$, there are two cases $ab=bar{a}$ or $ab=bar{b}$. We obtain $a^2b=1$ or $ab^2=1$, hence abelian in both cases.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      First, Lagrange's theorem implies there is no subgroup of order 2, so one may suppose ${1, a, bar{a}, b, bar{b}}$ be this group.



                      Consider $ab$, there are two cases $ab=bar{a}$ or $ab=bar{b}$. We obtain $a^2b=1$ or $ab^2=1$, hence abelian in both cases.







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Feb 18 '14 at 13:53

























                      answered Feb 18 '14 at 13:40









                      Ma MingMa Ming

                      6,5661331




                      6,5661331








                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Tobias Kildetoft
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:42










                      • $begingroup$
                        Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:43










                      • $begingroup$
                        @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ma Ming
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:56














                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Tobias Kildetoft
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:42










                      • $begingroup$
                        Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:43










                      • $begingroup$
                        @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ma Ming
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                        $endgroup$
                        – 5xum
                        Feb 18 '14 at 13:56








                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tobias Kildetoft
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:42




                      $begingroup$
                      Using an overline to denote inverse is not very common (as that notation is also often used for images in quotients). Also, it is not quite clear here why you can assume that none of the non-identity elements are equal to their inverses.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tobias Kildetoft
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:42












                      $begingroup$
                      Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 5xum
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:43




                      $begingroup$
                      Why does $a^2b=1$ imply that $ab=ba?$
                      $endgroup$
                      – 5xum
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:43












                      $begingroup$
                      @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ma Ming
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:54




                      $begingroup$
                      @5xum $a^2 b=1$ implies $b=bar{a}^2$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ma Ming
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:54












                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – 5xum
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:56




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, it's OK now, when you explained that $bar a neq a$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – 5xum
                      Feb 18 '14 at 13:56











                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly a non identity element $ain G$



                      Before going any further It is necessary to see that :




                      A Group in which every element is of order $2$ is abelian




                      so, we can for sure choose non identity element $a$ to be such that $a^2neq e$



                      So, we have $3$ distinct elements ${e,a,a^{-1}}$ from $G$



                      For sure $ain G$ can not have order more than $5$.




                      • Suppose $a$ is of order $5$ then we see that $G$ is abelian.

                      • $a$ can not have order $4$ because a subgroup of $G$ can not be of order $|G|-1$


                      So, only possibility we should take care of is $|a|=3$



                      In that case we have ${e,a,a^2}subset G$



                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly one elemnet $bin G$ such that $bnotin {e,a,a^2}$ and $b$ can not be inverse of any element in ${e,a,a^2}$



                      Only possible order of $b$ is $2$...




                      what would go wrong if $b$ is of order $3$ (consider possibilities of $ab$)




                      So, we have ${e,a,a^2,b}subset G$



                      Now... What could $ab$ be?




                      • $ab=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=bRightarrow ??$


                      So, $ab$ is certainly another element which should complete the group as $|G|=5$ and $|{e,a,a^2,b,ab}|=5$



                      Now, $ba$ should also be in $G$



                      Now... What could $ba$ be?




                      • $ba=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=bRightarrow ??$


                      so, only possible choice is $ab=ba$




                      $textbf{ Hold On! this does not say that $G$ is abelian}$




                      certainly $a^2b$ should also be in $G$ Right?



                      what are the possibilities for $a^2b$ ?




                      • $a^2b=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=bRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=abRightarrow ??$


                      This adds one more element to $G$ which contradicts given condition of cardinality of $G$ being $5$



                      So... What does this say??






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Pedro Tamaroff
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                        $endgroup$
                        – user87543
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:56


















                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly a non identity element $ain G$



                      Before going any further It is necessary to see that :




                      A Group in which every element is of order $2$ is abelian




                      so, we can for sure choose non identity element $a$ to be such that $a^2neq e$



                      So, we have $3$ distinct elements ${e,a,a^{-1}}$ from $G$



                      For sure $ain G$ can not have order more than $5$.




                      • Suppose $a$ is of order $5$ then we see that $G$ is abelian.

                      • $a$ can not have order $4$ because a subgroup of $G$ can not be of order $|G|-1$


                      So, only possibility we should take care of is $|a|=3$



                      In that case we have ${e,a,a^2}subset G$



                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly one elemnet $bin G$ such that $bnotin {e,a,a^2}$ and $b$ can not be inverse of any element in ${e,a,a^2}$



                      Only possible order of $b$ is $2$...




                      what would go wrong if $b$ is of order $3$ (consider possibilities of $ab$)




                      So, we have ${e,a,a^2,b}subset G$



                      Now... What could $ab$ be?




                      • $ab=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=bRightarrow ??$


                      So, $ab$ is certainly another element which should complete the group as $|G|=5$ and $|{e,a,a^2,b,ab}|=5$



                      Now, $ba$ should also be in $G$



                      Now... What could $ba$ be?




                      • $ba=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=bRightarrow ??$


                      so, only possible choice is $ab=ba$




                      $textbf{ Hold On! this does not say that $G$ is abelian}$




                      certainly $a^2b$ should also be in $G$ Right?



                      what are the possibilities for $a^2b$ ?




                      • $a^2b=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=bRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=abRightarrow ??$


                      This adds one more element to $G$ which contradicts given condition of cardinality of $G$ being $5$



                      So... What does this say??






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$









                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Pedro Tamaroff
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                        $endgroup$
                        – user87543
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:56
















                      0












                      0








                      0





                      $begingroup$

                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly a non identity element $ain G$



                      Before going any further It is necessary to see that :




                      A Group in which every element is of order $2$ is abelian




                      so, we can for sure choose non identity element $a$ to be such that $a^2neq e$



                      So, we have $3$ distinct elements ${e,a,a^{-1}}$ from $G$



                      For sure $ain G$ can not have order more than $5$.




                      • Suppose $a$ is of order $5$ then we see that $G$ is abelian.

                      • $a$ can not have order $4$ because a subgroup of $G$ can not be of order $|G|-1$


                      So, only possibility we should take care of is $|a|=3$



                      In that case we have ${e,a,a^2}subset G$



                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly one elemnet $bin G$ such that $bnotin {e,a,a^2}$ and $b$ can not be inverse of any element in ${e,a,a^2}$



                      Only possible order of $b$ is $2$...




                      what would go wrong if $b$ is of order $3$ (consider possibilities of $ab$)




                      So, we have ${e,a,a^2,b}subset G$



                      Now... What could $ab$ be?




                      • $ab=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=bRightarrow ??$


                      So, $ab$ is certainly another element which should complete the group as $|G|=5$ and $|{e,a,a^2,b,ab}|=5$



                      Now, $ba$ should also be in $G$



                      Now... What could $ba$ be?




                      • $ba=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=bRightarrow ??$


                      so, only possible choice is $ab=ba$




                      $textbf{ Hold On! this does not say that $G$ is abelian}$




                      certainly $a^2b$ should also be in $G$ Right?



                      what are the possibilities for $a^2b$ ?




                      • $a^2b=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=bRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=abRightarrow ??$


                      This adds one more element to $G$ which contradicts given condition of cardinality of $G$ being $5$



                      So... What does this say??






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly a non identity element $ain G$



                      Before going any further It is necessary to see that :




                      A Group in which every element is of order $2$ is abelian




                      so, we can for sure choose non identity element $a$ to be such that $a^2neq e$



                      So, we have $3$ distinct elements ${e,a,a^{-1}}$ from $G$



                      For sure $ain G$ can not have order more than $5$.




                      • Suppose $a$ is of order $5$ then we see that $G$ is abelian.

                      • $a$ can not have order $4$ because a subgroup of $G$ can not be of order $|G|-1$


                      So, only possibility we should take care of is $|a|=3$



                      In that case we have ${e,a,a^2}subset G$



                      As $|G|=5$ there would be certainly one elemnet $bin G$ such that $bnotin {e,a,a^2}$ and $b$ can not be inverse of any element in ${e,a,a^2}$



                      Only possible order of $b$ is $2$...




                      what would go wrong if $b$ is of order $3$ (consider possibilities of $ab$)




                      So, we have ${e,a,a^2,b}subset G$



                      Now... What could $ab$ be?




                      • $ab=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ab=bRightarrow ??$


                      So, $ab$ is certainly another element which should complete the group as $|G|=5$ and $|{e,a,a^2,b,ab}|=5$



                      Now, $ba$ should also be in $G$



                      Now... What could $ba$ be?




                      • $ba=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $ba=bRightarrow ??$


                      so, only possible choice is $ab=ba$




                      $textbf{ Hold On! this does not say that $G$ is abelian}$




                      certainly $a^2b$ should also be in $G$ Right?



                      what are the possibilities for $a^2b$ ?




                      • $a^2b=eRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=aRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=a^2Rightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=bRightarrow ??$

                      • $a^2b=abRightarrow ??$


                      This adds one more element to $G$ which contradicts given condition of cardinality of $G$ being $5$



                      So... What does this say??







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Feb 18 '14 at 16:52







                      user87543















                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Pedro Tamaroff
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                        $endgroup$
                        – user87543
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:56
















                      • 1




                        $begingroup$
                        The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Pedro Tamaroff
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:54










                      • $begingroup$
                        @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                        $endgroup$
                        – user87543
                        Feb 18 '14 at 16:56










                      1




                      1




                      $begingroup$
                      The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Pedro Tamaroff
                      Feb 18 '14 at 16:54




                      $begingroup$
                      The only possible orders are $1$ and $5$ by Lagrange's theorem. This is unnecessarily roundabout.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Pedro Tamaroff
                      Feb 18 '14 at 16:54












                      $begingroup$
                      @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                      $endgroup$
                      – user87543
                      Feb 18 '14 at 16:56






                      $begingroup$
                      @PedroTamaroff : See my comment just below the question....That is what my point is.... This is usually asked much before introducing Lagrange theorem... Lagrange theorem is an overkill...
                      $endgroup$
                      – user87543
                      Feb 18 '14 at 16:56




















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