Neumann problem with zero average sobolev space
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Let us considère the following Laplace-Neumann problem $-Delta u=0$ with homogenuous boundary condition of type neumann, i:e $frac{{partial u}}{{partial n}} = 0$.
The variational formulation is given as follows $a(u,v)=l(v)$, where $$a(u,v) = int_Omega {nabla unabla v} dx = 0$$ and $l(v)=0$.
Let us cinsidère the space
$$left{ V={u in H^1(Omega), int_Omega v(x)ds=0} right}$$
$l$ is continuous ( is zero), and $a$ is continuous and corecive. By lax-Milgram theoremn there exists a unique solution of the variational problem $$a(u,v)=l(v)$$. We can notice that the constant are alos solutions of the problem, but the constants don't satisfy the zero average condition, I don't understand that.
pde laplacian elliptic-equations variational-analysis
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$begingroup$
Let us considère the following Laplace-Neumann problem $-Delta u=0$ with homogenuous boundary condition of type neumann, i:e $frac{{partial u}}{{partial n}} = 0$.
The variational formulation is given as follows $a(u,v)=l(v)$, where $$a(u,v) = int_Omega {nabla unabla v} dx = 0$$ and $l(v)=0$.
Let us cinsidère the space
$$left{ V={u in H^1(Omega), int_Omega v(x)ds=0} right}$$
$l$ is continuous ( is zero), and $a$ is continuous and corecive. By lax-Milgram theoremn there exists a unique solution of the variational problem $$a(u,v)=l(v)$$. We can notice that the constant are alos solutions of the problem, but the constants don't satisfy the zero average condition, I don't understand that.
pde laplacian elliptic-equations variational-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let us considère the following Laplace-Neumann problem $-Delta u=0$ with homogenuous boundary condition of type neumann, i:e $frac{{partial u}}{{partial n}} = 0$.
The variational formulation is given as follows $a(u,v)=l(v)$, where $$a(u,v) = int_Omega {nabla unabla v} dx = 0$$ and $l(v)=0$.
Let us cinsidère the space
$$left{ V={u in H^1(Omega), int_Omega v(x)ds=0} right}$$
$l$ is continuous ( is zero), and $a$ is continuous and corecive. By lax-Milgram theoremn there exists a unique solution of the variational problem $$a(u,v)=l(v)$$. We can notice that the constant are alos solutions of the problem, but the constants don't satisfy the zero average condition, I don't understand that.
pde laplacian elliptic-equations variational-analysis
$endgroup$
Let us considère the following Laplace-Neumann problem $-Delta u=0$ with homogenuous boundary condition of type neumann, i:e $frac{{partial u}}{{partial n}} = 0$.
The variational formulation is given as follows $a(u,v)=l(v)$, where $$a(u,v) = int_Omega {nabla unabla v} dx = 0$$ and $l(v)=0$.
Let us cinsidère the space
$$left{ V={u in H^1(Omega), int_Omega v(x)ds=0} right}$$
$l$ is continuous ( is zero), and $a$ is continuous and corecive. By lax-Milgram theoremn there exists a unique solution of the variational problem $$a(u,v)=l(v)$$. We can notice that the constant are alos solutions of the problem, but the constants don't satisfy the zero average condition, I don't understand that.
pde laplacian elliptic-equations variational-analysis
pde laplacian elliptic-equations variational-analysis
asked Dec 2 '18 at 11:04
GustaveGustave
729211
729211
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In your case the problem is $-Delta u = 0$ subject to $frac{partial u}{partial n} = 0,$ which only has trivial solutions. Indeed if $u$ is such a solution with zero average $int_{Omega} u ,mathrm{d}x = 0,$ since $a(u,u) = int_{Omega} |nabla u|^2,mathrm{d}x = 0$ we conclude that $u$ is a.e. constant and hence zero as it has zero average.
So the solution $u equiv 0$ is the unique solution subject to the zero average condition. The other constant solutions $u equiv k neq 0$ are also solutions, but they don't satisfy the zero average condition. I assume this is what is meant here.
For a non-homogenous problem $-Delta u = f$, we get $ell(v) = int_{Omega} fv ,mathrm{d}x$ is non-trivial and hence we get non-trivial solutions. However if $u$ is a solution, then so is $u+k$ for any constant $k.$ The zero average condition removes this extra degree of freedom.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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In your case the problem is $-Delta u = 0$ subject to $frac{partial u}{partial n} = 0,$ which only has trivial solutions. Indeed if $u$ is such a solution with zero average $int_{Omega} u ,mathrm{d}x = 0,$ since $a(u,u) = int_{Omega} |nabla u|^2,mathrm{d}x = 0$ we conclude that $u$ is a.e. constant and hence zero as it has zero average.
So the solution $u equiv 0$ is the unique solution subject to the zero average condition. The other constant solutions $u equiv k neq 0$ are also solutions, but they don't satisfy the zero average condition. I assume this is what is meant here.
For a non-homogenous problem $-Delta u = f$, we get $ell(v) = int_{Omega} fv ,mathrm{d}x$ is non-trivial and hence we get non-trivial solutions. However if $u$ is a solution, then so is $u+k$ for any constant $k.$ The zero average condition removes this extra degree of freedom.
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In your case the problem is $-Delta u = 0$ subject to $frac{partial u}{partial n} = 0,$ which only has trivial solutions. Indeed if $u$ is such a solution with zero average $int_{Omega} u ,mathrm{d}x = 0,$ since $a(u,u) = int_{Omega} |nabla u|^2,mathrm{d}x = 0$ we conclude that $u$ is a.e. constant and hence zero as it has zero average.
So the solution $u equiv 0$ is the unique solution subject to the zero average condition. The other constant solutions $u equiv k neq 0$ are also solutions, but they don't satisfy the zero average condition. I assume this is what is meant here.
For a non-homogenous problem $-Delta u = f$, we get $ell(v) = int_{Omega} fv ,mathrm{d}x$ is non-trivial and hence we get non-trivial solutions. However if $u$ is a solution, then so is $u+k$ for any constant $k.$ The zero average condition removes this extra degree of freedom.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your case the problem is $-Delta u = 0$ subject to $frac{partial u}{partial n} = 0,$ which only has trivial solutions. Indeed if $u$ is such a solution with zero average $int_{Omega} u ,mathrm{d}x = 0,$ since $a(u,u) = int_{Omega} |nabla u|^2,mathrm{d}x = 0$ we conclude that $u$ is a.e. constant and hence zero as it has zero average.
So the solution $u equiv 0$ is the unique solution subject to the zero average condition. The other constant solutions $u equiv k neq 0$ are also solutions, but they don't satisfy the zero average condition. I assume this is what is meant here.
For a non-homogenous problem $-Delta u = f$, we get $ell(v) = int_{Omega} fv ,mathrm{d}x$ is non-trivial and hence we get non-trivial solutions. However if $u$ is a solution, then so is $u+k$ for any constant $k.$ The zero average condition removes this extra degree of freedom.
$endgroup$
In your case the problem is $-Delta u = 0$ subject to $frac{partial u}{partial n} = 0,$ which only has trivial solutions. Indeed if $u$ is such a solution with zero average $int_{Omega} u ,mathrm{d}x = 0,$ since $a(u,u) = int_{Omega} |nabla u|^2,mathrm{d}x = 0$ we conclude that $u$ is a.e. constant and hence zero as it has zero average.
So the solution $u equiv 0$ is the unique solution subject to the zero average condition. The other constant solutions $u equiv k neq 0$ are also solutions, but they don't satisfy the zero average condition. I assume this is what is meant here.
For a non-homogenous problem $-Delta u = f$, we get $ell(v) = int_{Omega} fv ,mathrm{d}x$ is non-trivial and hence we get non-trivial solutions. However if $u$ is a solution, then so is $u+k$ for any constant $k.$ The zero average condition removes this extra degree of freedom.
answered Dec 4 '18 at 20:11
ktoiktoi
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