Intrinsic distance is symmetric












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Define the intrinsic distance between points $p, qin M$ to be $rho(p,q)=inf (int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt})$ where $alpha$ is a curve segment on $M$ such that $alpha(t_0)=p$ and $alpha(t_1)=q$.




I need to show that $rho(p,q)=rho(q,p)$. Please help me finish this proof.



Define $A$ to be the set of curves $k$ such that $k(t_0)=p$ and $k(t_1)=q$. Let $h(s)=t_0+t_1-s$. Then $h(t_1)=t_0$ and $h(t_0)=t_1$. And we have, if $alpha=inf(L(A))$, that $$
int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime{t}lvertlvert dt}=int_{t_1}^{t_0}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert dh(s)}=-int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds}
$$

Because $t_0<t_1$ we have $h(s)$ to be monotonically decreasing and $h'(s)<0$ for any $sin [t_0,t_1]$. Hence, $-lvert h^prime(s)lvert=h^prime(s)$ and



$$
-int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert lvert h^prime(s)lvert ds = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))h^prime(s)lvertlvert ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvert beta^prime(s) lvertlvert ds}}
$$

Where $beta(s)=(alphacirc h)(s)$. If $beta$ is not the curve with shortest arclength from $q$ to $p$ then we can convert this to some curve $gamma$ from $p$ to $q$ that has shorter arclength than $alpha$, which is a contradiction.



Is this even true? If so, is there a more elegant way? Do I need to do this much work?










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    $begingroup$



    Define the intrinsic distance between points $p, qin M$ to be $rho(p,q)=inf (int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt})$ where $alpha$ is a curve segment on $M$ such that $alpha(t_0)=p$ and $alpha(t_1)=q$.




    I need to show that $rho(p,q)=rho(q,p)$. Please help me finish this proof.



    Define $A$ to be the set of curves $k$ such that $k(t_0)=p$ and $k(t_1)=q$. Let $h(s)=t_0+t_1-s$. Then $h(t_1)=t_0$ and $h(t_0)=t_1$. And we have, if $alpha=inf(L(A))$, that $$
    int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime{t}lvertlvert dt}=int_{t_1}^{t_0}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert dh(s)}=-int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds}
    $$

    Because $t_0<t_1$ we have $h(s)$ to be monotonically decreasing and $h'(s)<0$ for any $sin [t_0,t_1]$. Hence, $-lvert h^prime(s)lvert=h^prime(s)$ and



    $$
    -int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert lvert h^prime(s)lvert ds = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))h^prime(s)lvertlvert ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvert beta^prime(s) lvertlvert ds}}
    $$

    Where $beta(s)=(alphacirc h)(s)$. If $beta$ is not the curve with shortest arclength from $q$ to $p$ then we can convert this to some curve $gamma$ from $p$ to $q$ that has shorter arclength than $alpha$, which is a contradiction.



    Is this even true? If so, is there a more elegant way? Do I need to do this much work?










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      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Define the intrinsic distance between points $p, qin M$ to be $rho(p,q)=inf (int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt})$ where $alpha$ is a curve segment on $M$ such that $alpha(t_0)=p$ and $alpha(t_1)=q$.




      I need to show that $rho(p,q)=rho(q,p)$. Please help me finish this proof.



      Define $A$ to be the set of curves $k$ such that $k(t_0)=p$ and $k(t_1)=q$. Let $h(s)=t_0+t_1-s$. Then $h(t_1)=t_0$ and $h(t_0)=t_1$. And we have, if $alpha=inf(L(A))$, that $$
      int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime{t}lvertlvert dt}=int_{t_1}^{t_0}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert dh(s)}=-int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds}
      $$

      Because $t_0<t_1$ we have $h(s)$ to be monotonically decreasing and $h'(s)<0$ for any $sin [t_0,t_1]$. Hence, $-lvert h^prime(s)lvert=h^prime(s)$ and



      $$
      -int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert lvert h^prime(s)lvert ds = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))h^prime(s)lvertlvert ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvert beta^prime(s) lvertlvert ds}}
      $$

      Where $beta(s)=(alphacirc h)(s)$. If $beta$ is not the curve with shortest arclength from $q$ to $p$ then we can convert this to some curve $gamma$ from $p$ to $q$ that has shorter arclength than $alpha$, which is a contradiction.



      Is this even true? If so, is there a more elegant way? Do I need to do this much work?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Define the intrinsic distance between points $p, qin M$ to be $rho(p,q)=inf (int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt})$ where $alpha$ is a curve segment on $M$ such that $alpha(t_0)=p$ and $alpha(t_1)=q$.




      I need to show that $rho(p,q)=rho(q,p)$. Please help me finish this proof.



      Define $A$ to be the set of curves $k$ such that $k(t_0)=p$ and $k(t_1)=q$. Let $h(s)=t_0+t_1-s$. Then $h(t_1)=t_0$ and $h(t_0)=t_1$. And we have, if $alpha=inf(L(A))$, that $$
      int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime{t}lvertlvert dt}=int_{t_1}^{t_0}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert dh(s)}=-int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds}
      $$

      Because $t_0<t_1$ we have $h(s)$ to be monotonically decreasing and $h'(s)<0$ for any $sin [t_0,t_1]$. Hence, $-lvert h^prime(s)lvert=h^prime(s)$ and



      $$
      -int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert h^prime(s)ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))lvertlvert lvert h^prime(s)lvert ds = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^prime(h(s))h^prime(s)lvertlvert ds} = int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvert beta^prime(s) lvertlvert ds}}
      $$

      Where $beta(s)=(alphacirc h)(s)$. If $beta$ is not the curve with shortest arclength from $q$ to $p$ then we can convert this to some curve $gamma$ from $p$ to $q$ that has shorter arclength than $alpha$, which is a contradiction.



      Is this even true? If so, is there a more elegant way? Do I need to do this much work?







      differential-geometry






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      asked Dec 2 '18 at 10:56









      ColebasaurColebasaur

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          $begingroup$

          You have already shown $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertalpha^prime(t)rVert dt}=int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertbeta^prime(t)rVert dt}$$ for a certain curve $beta$ from $q$ to $p$. This is already enough. Here is why:



          You are trying the show the infimums of the two sets $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}$ and $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}$ are equal. Your proof already tells you that $$left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}subseteqleft{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}.$$ The same proof applies to tell you that the reverse inclusion is also true. So the two sets are equal, and so the infimum must be equal.






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            $begingroup$

            More elegant way: take any curve segment $alpha$ as in your first line. Define $bar{alpha}(t) = alpha(t_1+t_0-t)$. Then $bar{alpha}$ is also a curve segment on $M$, and further, $bar{alpha}(t_0) = q$, and $bar{alpha}(t_1) = p$. Then, clearly
            $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}|bar{alpha}'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|frac{d}{dt}alpha(t_1+t_0-t)|dt = int_{t_1}^{t_0}-|alpha'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|alpha'(t)|dt leq rho(p,q).$$



            But this holds for any $alpha$, so we have $rho(q,p)leqrho(p,q)$. But this is symmetric in $p$ and $q$, so the exact same argument gives that $rho(p,q)leqrho(q,p)$, so indeed, $rho(p,q) = rho(q,p)$.






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              $begingroup$

              You have already shown $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertalpha^prime(t)rVert dt}=int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertbeta^prime(t)rVert dt}$$ for a certain curve $beta$ from $q$ to $p$. This is already enough. Here is why:



              You are trying the show the infimums of the two sets $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}$ and $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}$ are equal. Your proof already tells you that $$left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}subseteqleft{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}.$$ The same proof applies to tell you that the reverse inclusion is also true. So the two sets are equal, and so the infimum must be equal.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                You have already shown $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertalpha^prime(t)rVert dt}=int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertbeta^prime(t)rVert dt}$$ for a certain curve $beta$ from $q$ to $p$. This is already enough. Here is why:



                You are trying the show the infimums of the two sets $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}$ and $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}$ are equal. Your proof already tells you that $$left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}subseteqleft{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}.$$ The same proof applies to tell you that the reverse inclusion is also true. So the two sets are equal, and so the infimum must be equal.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  You have already shown $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertalpha^prime(t)rVert dt}=int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertbeta^prime(t)rVert dt}$$ for a certain curve $beta$ from $q$ to $p$. This is already enough. Here is why:



                  You are trying the show the infimums of the two sets $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}$ and $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}$ are equal. Your proof already tells you that $$left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}subseteqleft{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}.$$ The same proof applies to tell you that the reverse inclusion is also true. So the two sets are equal, and so the infimum must be equal.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  You have already shown $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertalpha^prime(t)rVert dt}=int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lVertbeta^prime(t)rVert dt}$$ for a certain curve $beta$ from $q$ to $p$. This is already enough. Here is why:



                  You are trying the show the infimums of the two sets $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}$ and $left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}$ are equal. Your proof already tells you that $$left{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertalpha^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:alpha(t_0)=p,alpha(t_1)=qright}subseteqleft{int_{t_0}^{t_1}{lvertlvertgamma^{prime}(t)lvertlvert dt}:gamma(t_0)=q,gamma(t_1)=pright}.$$ The same proof applies to tell you that the reverse inclusion is also true. So the two sets are equal, and so the infimum must be equal.







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                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:10









                  edmedm

                  3,6231425




                  3,6231425























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      More elegant way: take any curve segment $alpha$ as in your first line. Define $bar{alpha}(t) = alpha(t_1+t_0-t)$. Then $bar{alpha}$ is also a curve segment on $M$, and further, $bar{alpha}(t_0) = q$, and $bar{alpha}(t_1) = p$. Then, clearly
                      $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}|bar{alpha}'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|frac{d}{dt}alpha(t_1+t_0-t)|dt = int_{t_1}^{t_0}-|alpha'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|alpha'(t)|dt leq rho(p,q).$$



                      But this holds for any $alpha$, so we have $rho(q,p)leqrho(p,q)$. But this is symmetric in $p$ and $q$, so the exact same argument gives that $rho(p,q)leqrho(q,p)$, so indeed, $rho(p,q) = rho(q,p)$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        More elegant way: take any curve segment $alpha$ as in your first line. Define $bar{alpha}(t) = alpha(t_1+t_0-t)$. Then $bar{alpha}$ is also a curve segment on $M$, and further, $bar{alpha}(t_0) = q$, and $bar{alpha}(t_1) = p$. Then, clearly
                        $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}|bar{alpha}'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|frac{d}{dt}alpha(t_1+t_0-t)|dt = int_{t_1}^{t_0}-|alpha'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|alpha'(t)|dt leq rho(p,q).$$



                        But this holds for any $alpha$, so we have $rho(q,p)leqrho(p,q)$. But this is symmetric in $p$ and $q$, so the exact same argument gives that $rho(p,q)leqrho(q,p)$, so indeed, $rho(p,q) = rho(q,p)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          More elegant way: take any curve segment $alpha$ as in your first line. Define $bar{alpha}(t) = alpha(t_1+t_0-t)$. Then $bar{alpha}$ is also a curve segment on $M$, and further, $bar{alpha}(t_0) = q$, and $bar{alpha}(t_1) = p$. Then, clearly
                          $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}|bar{alpha}'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|frac{d}{dt}alpha(t_1+t_0-t)|dt = int_{t_1}^{t_0}-|alpha'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|alpha'(t)|dt leq rho(p,q).$$



                          But this holds for any $alpha$, so we have $rho(q,p)leqrho(p,q)$. But this is symmetric in $p$ and $q$, so the exact same argument gives that $rho(p,q)leqrho(q,p)$, so indeed, $rho(p,q) = rho(q,p)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          More elegant way: take any curve segment $alpha$ as in your first line. Define $bar{alpha}(t) = alpha(t_1+t_0-t)$. Then $bar{alpha}$ is also a curve segment on $M$, and further, $bar{alpha}(t_0) = q$, and $bar{alpha}(t_1) = p$. Then, clearly
                          $$int_{t_0}^{t_1}|bar{alpha}'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|frac{d}{dt}alpha(t_1+t_0-t)|dt = int_{t_1}^{t_0}-|alpha'(t)|dt = int_{t_0}^{t_1}|alpha'(t)|dt leq rho(p,q).$$



                          But this holds for any $alpha$, so we have $rho(q,p)leqrho(p,q)$. But this is symmetric in $p$ and $q$, so the exact same argument gives that $rho(p,q)leqrho(q,p)$, so indeed, $rho(p,q) = rho(q,p)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:05









                          user3482749user3482749

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                          4,266919






























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