Show that $ab + bc +ac = 2abc +1 $ for given planes












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If the three planes with the equation below have a line in common, show that $ab + bc +ac = 2abc +1 $




$$pi_1 : x+by+cz = 0 \
pi_2: ax+y+cz = 0 \
pi_3: ax +by +z = 0$$



I am not sure how to solve this problem. I am not sure if this is solvable using matrix.



$$begin{bmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{bmatrix}$$










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    0















    If the three planes with the equation below have a line in common, show that $ab + bc +ac = 2abc +1 $




    $$pi_1 : x+by+cz = 0 \
    pi_2: ax+y+cz = 0 \
    pi_3: ax +by +z = 0$$



    I am not sure how to solve this problem. I am not sure if this is solvable using matrix.



    $$begin{bmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{bmatrix}$$










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      0












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      0








      If the three planes with the equation below have a line in common, show that $ab + bc +ac = 2abc +1 $




      $$pi_1 : x+by+cz = 0 \
      pi_2: ax+y+cz = 0 \
      pi_3: ax +by +z = 0$$



      I am not sure how to solve this problem. I am not sure if this is solvable using matrix.



      $$begin{bmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{bmatrix}$$










      share|cite|improve this question
















      If the three planes with the equation below have a line in common, show that $ab + bc +ac = 2abc +1 $




      $$pi_1 : x+by+cz = 0 \
      pi_2: ax+y+cz = 0 \
      pi_3: ax +by +z = 0$$



      I am not sure how to solve this problem. I am not sure if this is solvable using matrix.



      $$begin{bmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{bmatrix}$$







      matrices vector-spaces






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      edited Nov 22 '18 at 23:38







      didgocks

















      asked Nov 22 '18 at 23:08









      didgocksdidgocks

      680823




      680823






















          4 Answers
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          If the planes have a common line, then the system has infinite number of solutions, and consequently is the determinant of the matrix zero. Just compute the determinant.






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            Hint: Call your matrix $M$ and set $,v=(x,y,z)^T$, then we are looking for a nonzero $v$ (representing the direction vector of the common line) such that $Mv=0$, in other words the assumption is that the kernel of $M$ is not trivial.






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              Subtract the second equations from the first one; the third one from the second one and the first one from the third. Then you get three new equations which gives as a result: $(1-a)x=(1-b)y=(1-c)z$. Plug everything in terms of x in the first (second and third will also do) equation. The you get $x(1+frac{1-a}{1-b}b+frac{1-a}{1-c}c)=0$. For $xneq 0$ we can devide this equation by zero. We obtain after working a bit out: $frac{(1-b)(1-c)+(1-a)((1-c)b+(1-b)c)}{(1-b)(1-c)}=0$. Since this fraction is equal to zero, we can ignore the denominator. Just write out all the brackets in the numerator and you will find your desired result.






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                Since line is a one-dimensional subspace, therefore the kernel of the matrix must be a one-dimensional subspace i.e. the rank of the matrix must be 2 (the determinant must be zero) and no row be a multiple of any other row: $$begin{vmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{vmatrix}=(1-bc)-b(a-ac)+c(ab-a)=2abc+1-ab-ac-bc=0$$which results what we sought. Also the condition that no two rows are multiples of each other holds automatically.






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                  4 Answers
                  4






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes








                  4 Answers
                  4






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  active

                  oldest

                  votes






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  1














                  If the planes have a common line, then the system has infinite number of solutions, and consequently is the determinant of the matrix zero. Just compute the determinant.






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    1














                    If the planes have a common line, then the system has infinite number of solutions, and consequently is the determinant of the matrix zero. Just compute the determinant.






                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                      1












                      1








                      1






                      If the planes have a common line, then the system has infinite number of solutions, and consequently is the determinant of the matrix zero. Just compute the determinant.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      If the planes have a common line, then the system has infinite number of solutions, and consequently is the determinant of the matrix zero. Just compute the determinant.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 23 '18 at 0:31









                      user376343user376343

                      2,9132823




                      2,9132823























                          0














                          Hint: Call your matrix $M$ and set $,v=(x,y,z)^T$, then we are looking for a nonzero $v$ (representing the direction vector of the common line) such that $Mv=0$, in other words the assumption is that the kernel of $M$ is not trivial.






                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                            0














                            Hint: Call your matrix $M$ and set $,v=(x,y,z)^T$, then we are looking for a nonzero $v$ (representing the direction vector of the common line) such that $Mv=0$, in other words the assumption is that the kernel of $M$ is not trivial.






                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                              0












                              0








                              0






                              Hint: Call your matrix $M$ and set $,v=(x,y,z)^T$, then we are looking for a nonzero $v$ (representing the direction vector of the common line) such that $Mv=0$, in other words the assumption is that the kernel of $M$ is not trivial.






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              Hint: Call your matrix $M$ and set $,v=(x,y,z)^T$, then we are looking for a nonzero $v$ (representing the direction vector of the common line) such that $Mv=0$, in other words the assumption is that the kernel of $M$ is not trivial.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Nov 22 '18 at 23:13









                              BerciBerci

                              59.8k23672




                              59.8k23672























                                  0














                                  Subtract the second equations from the first one; the third one from the second one and the first one from the third. Then you get three new equations which gives as a result: $(1-a)x=(1-b)y=(1-c)z$. Plug everything in terms of x in the first (second and third will also do) equation. The you get $x(1+frac{1-a}{1-b}b+frac{1-a}{1-c}c)=0$. For $xneq 0$ we can devide this equation by zero. We obtain after working a bit out: $frac{(1-b)(1-c)+(1-a)((1-c)b+(1-b)c)}{(1-b)(1-c)}=0$. Since this fraction is equal to zero, we can ignore the denominator. Just write out all the brackets in the numerator and you will find your desired result.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                                    0














                                    Subtract the second equations from the first one; the third one from the second one and the first one from the third. Then you get three new equations which gives as a result: $(1-a)x=(1-b)y=(1-c)z$. Plug everything in terms of x in the first (second and third will also do) equation. The you get $x(1+frac{1-a}{1-b}b+frac{1-a}{1-c}c)=0$. For $xneq 0$ we can devide this equation by zero. We obtain after working a bit out: $frac{(1-b)(1-c)+(1-a)((1-c)b+(1-b)c)}{(1-b)(1-c)}=0$. Since this fraction is equal to zero, we can ignore the denominator. Just write out all the brackets in the numerator and you will find your desired result.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                                      0












                                      0








                                      0






                                      Subtract the second equations from the first one; the third one from the second one and the first one from the third. Then you get three new equations which gives as a result: $(1-a)x=(1-b)y=(1-c)z$. Plug everything in terms of x in the first (second and third will also do) equation. The you get $x(1+frac{1-a}{1-b}b+frac{1-a}{1-c}c)=0$. For $xneq 0$ we can devide this equation by zero. We obtain after working a bit out: $frac{(1-b)(1-c)+(1-a)((1-c)b+(1-b)c)}{(1-b)(1-c)}=0$. Since this fraction is equal to zero, we can ignore the denominator. Just write out all the brackets in the numerator and you will find your desired result.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      Subtract the second equations from the first one; the third one from the second one and the first one from the third. Then you get three new equations which gives as a result: $(1-a)x=(1-b)y=(1-c)z$. Plug everything in terms of x in the first (second and third will also do) equation. The you get $x(1+frac{1-a}{1-b}b+frac{1-a}{1-c}c)=0$. For $xneq 0$ we can devide this equation by zero. We obtain after working a bit out: $frac{(1-b)(1-c)+(1-a)((1-c)b+(1-b)c)}{(1-b)(1-c)}=0$. Since this fraction is equal to zero, we can ignore the denominator. Just write out all the brackets in the numerator and you will find your desired result.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 23 '18 at 0:30









                                      esmoesmo

                                      406




                                      406























                                          0














                                          Since line is a one-dimensional subspace, therefore the kernel of the matrix must be a one-dimensional subspace i.e. the rank of the matrix must be 2 (the determinant must be zero) and no row be a multiple of any other row: $$begin{vmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{vmatrix}=(1-bc)-b(a-ac)+c(ab-a)=2abc+1-ab-ac-bc=0$$which results what we sought. Also the condition that no two rows are multiples of each other holds automatically.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                                            0














                                            Since line is a one-dimensional subspace, therefore the kernel of the matrix must be a one-dimensional subspace i.e. the rank of the matrix must be 2 (the determinant must be zero) and no row be a multiple of any other row: $$begin{vmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{vmatrix}=(1-bc)-b(a-ac)+c(ab-a)=2abc+1-ab-ac-bc=0$$which results what we sought. Also the condition that no two rows are multiples of each other holds automatically.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer
























                                              0












                                              0








                                              0






                                              Since line is a one-dimensional subspace, therefore the kernel of the matrix must be a one-dimensional subspace i.e. the rank of the matrix must be 2 (the determinant must be zero) and no row be a multiple of any other row: $$begin{vmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{vmatrix}=(1-bc)-b(a-ac)+c(ab-a)=2abc+1-ab-ac-bc=0$$which results what we sought. Also the condition that no two rows are multiples of each other holds automatically.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              Since line is a one-dimensional subspace, therefore the kernel of the matrix must be a one-dimensional subspace i.e. the rank of the matrix must be 2 (the determinant must be zero) and no row be a multiple of any other row: $$begin{vmatrix}1 & b & c\a & 1 & c \ a & b & 1end{vmatrix}=(1-bc)-b(a-ac)+c(ab-a)=2abc+1-ab-ac-bc=0$$which results what we sought. Also the condition that no two rows are multiples of each other holds automatically.







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered Nov 24 '18 at 15:13









                                              Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

                                              14.2k3937




                                              14.2k3937






























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